Discussion:Settlement income

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And here is a longer discussion from our great reference source: [[Discussion: Taxable? Discrimination Award]] And here is a longer discussion from our great reference source: [[Discussion: Taxable? Discrimination Award]]
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Revision as of 18:47, 30 October 2009

Discussion Forum Index --> Advanced Tax Questions --> Settlement income
Discussion Forum Index --> Tax Questions --> Settlement income

Margy (talk|edits) said:

13 February 2008
My client received a 1099-Misc for a settlement for back pay. It is in box 3 as other income. Since this is for back pay, shouldn't this be subject to SE tax?

Margy (talk|edits) said:

13 February 2008
In my research it appears that the income is just other income. That sounds to me that it just goes on line 21 and NOT subject to SE tax.

Riley2 (talk|edits) said:

14 February 2008
Back-pay awards are subject to FICA/Medicare, not SE tax. Back-pay awarded under a statute is subject to reporting in the year that the wages should have been received. See Rev. Rul. 89-35.

TheTinCook (talk|edits) said:

14 February 2008
Hmmm, I've seen it reported on w-2's for the current year.

I guess the SS credits would be all messed up.

Jctmstx (talk|edits) said:

14 February 2008
I would think the rule of constructive receipt would apply and it would be reported in the year received for a cash basis taxpayer.

Margy (talk|edits) said:

14 February 2008
The income was reported on a 1099-Misc. Also, it's reported in the year of receipt. I'm just not sure whether to subject it to SE tax. The info I researched said that the character of the income is the same and that it is "other income". Well, "other income" to me sounds like line 21. However, if the character is the same, it should be taxed for SE. Ideally, I think a W2 should have been issued, and then my client would only pay their 1/2 of FICA/medicare.

Dennis (talk|edits) said:

15 February 2008
Actually Revenue Ruling 89-35 seems to say Form 4137 rather than Schedule SE. In Bowman the court determined that the settlement was subject to FICA/Medicare at the rates that were in existence in the years the settlement applied to.

IRS, logically finding this an unworkable solution, wants the rates in effect in the year received. I vote that Riley needs more sleep. ♫

Riley2 (talk|edits) said:

15 February 2008
At the risk of repeating myself, I will repeat myself. Back-pay awards are subject to FICA/Medicare -- not SE Tax. Rev. Ruling 89-35 confirms this as well as pointing out the correct withholding rate.

Dennis (talk|edits) said:

15 February 2008
OK So long as you don't repeat "subject to reporting in the year the wages should have been received."♫ Sleep is good.

Margy (talk|edits) said:

15 February 2008
My client will not get a W2, so I have to treat this with the info I have. I agree that Form 4137 should be used so my client will only pay the portion he's liable for.

I also agree that we all need a little more sleep. I'm setting my alarm for 7:00 AM 4/16. Thanks.

Jahtax (talk|edits) said:

29 October 2009
Could you use Form 8919? It seems more appropriate, however it seems to require that SS-8 also be submitted, which is a hassle. My client got a 1099-MISC with box 7 income for a back pay settlement.

Kevinh5 (talk|edits) said:

29 October 2009
hassle or pay tax, let the client choose. I'd push for the 8919.

but that disagrees with Riley2, I accept.

KathiJud (talk|edits) said:

30 October 2009
My husband got a back pay settlement last year as a result of a class action suit for underpaid overtime. We got two separate payments as detailed in the settlement papers we received. One was on a W-2 with FIT, FICA & Medicare tax withheld. This W-2 was not issued by the employer. The other lump sum payment was on a 1099 (box 3) and we were instructed to report on line 21 without any SE tax due etc. The lump sum amount on the 1099 was reported gross of the attorney fee we were charged. Of course the net of those two was the amount of the separate check we received. Attorney fees were taken to Sch A (2% category) and lost.

RoyDaleOne (talk|edits) said:

30 October 2009
Would not the new definition of "wages" include the amount of attorney fees paid on behalf of the employee?

Also, are not some class action suit attorney fees allowed above the line or are not income?

KathiJud (talk|edits) said:

30 October 2009
I know there have been a lot of cases related to deduction of attorney fees and/or reporting settlements above the line net of those costs. We got a letter from a big CPA firm (have to pull that out to confirm which one) with the settlement papers and two checks. It stated how we should report and we followed that.

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

30 October 2009
Here's Riley a couple of years ago: "The attorney fees allocable to the unlawful discrimiation suit are now deductible above the line. See Sec. 62(a)(19)or 62(a)(20)."

And here is a longer discussion from our great reference source: Discussion: Taxable? Discrimination Award

TexCPA (talk|edits) said:

30 October 2009
[Income and Employment Tax Consequences and Proper Reporting of Employment-Related Judgments and Settlements]

TexCPA 13:47, 30 October 2009 (CDT)