Discussion:S Corp Owner Salary vs. Distributions

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{{ForumReplyPost|UserID=Reelsafari|Date=25 January 2008|Text=When forming an S corp with one shareholder, namely the owner, does the owner pay themself a salary as an officer, say the President, or as an employee, say the manager? In other words, should the salary be designated to one position rather than the other, for example, salary of the President is $0 however the salary of the manager is $40k/year. Or vice versa. Any advantage of one over the other? Thanks. {{ForumReplyPost|UserID=Reelsafari|Date=25 January 2008|Text=When forming an S corp with one shareholder, namely the owner, does the owner pay themself a salary as an officer, say the President, or as an employee, say the manager? In other words, should the salary be designated to one position rather than the other, for example, salary of the President is $0 however the salary of the manager is $40k/year. Or vice versa. Any advantage of one over the other? Thanks.
S}} S}}
 +
 +{{ForumReplyPost|UserID=Johnhuddleston|Date=25 January 2008|Text=Beautiful Blooms,
 +
 +You can still report Q4 salary. The 941 is not due until Jan 31. You can pay employment taxes at that time up to $2500 without a penalty for failing to deposit employment taxes. If you have zero income tax withholding, your salary can be over $16,000 and your total tax will be under $2500. That's much better than zero salary. You can also pay a management fee from your corp to you and issue a 1099. The fee will be subject to self employment taxes. It's better to pay a salary than use the management fee method. However, that is a way to get the IRS their employment taxes. An auditor may be forgiving if you explain the circumstances and that you are not trying to avoid tax.
 +
 +John Huddleston
 +[http://huddlestontax.com/id131.html Seattle Bellevue Tax Accountant]}}

Revision as of 05:30, 25 January 2008

Discussion Forum Index --> Tax Questions --> S Corp Owner Salary vs. Distributions

Cpasupport (talk|edits) said:

16 November 2005
We all have to decide at what level reasonable compensation is for S Corp owners. I've used industry averages, what employees are paid, corporate right to profit, IRS standard of living tables, etc. Anything I can to justify the lowest possible S Corp owner salary. I'd love to hear other peoples ideas. Sometimes I feel like I'm too aggressive when I'm listing $15k-$30k for salary for owners making 30k-$100k before salary and distributions, but what do we go with?

What we can get away with? That's probably a little less than what I really feel in my heart is reasonable compensation because I can make some pretty good arguments.

Do we file whatever the client does. I have clients that pay 0-10% of profits in salary. Yes, they are playing the lottery audit game, but the problem is they are winning 99 in 100 times. I heard an revenue agent say that they really don't audit companies under $100,000 (He did not say revenue, profit before salary or profit after salary). I've got one right now that paid $0 salary and $40,000 distribution. Obviously salary should have been paid, but all 941s company W-2s, etc. have already been filed. If I changed distributions to salary where would I even make up the numbers (IRS's job). File as client did the books? He is starting salary now in 2005 per my advice but I'm still looking at his 2004 return (yes it is after the deadline) wondering how I could file an honest return with $0 salary or how to make up any other #s (I also feel that is wrong). What if he paid $6,000 instead of $0. We know $6,000 is unreasonable, but that is the paper trail.


Thoughts.

Snooks (talk|edits) said:

17 November 2005
If you are doing the tax return and they are doing their own payroll and bookkeeping, it would seem to me all you can do is highly suggest that they pay a reasonable salary. If there is no officer compensation, then that line on the 1120S must be zero. The IRS is looking at these lines and are starting to audit these returns. To put something there when there is none, is a big mistake. I certainly have clients that own corporations and their kids are the employees and run day to day operations. If the owner/officer does not physically work in the business, I have no problem with a zero salary. When they are working in the business, then they need to pay appropriatly. Look at the hours they work and wages paid to others. They certainly should not be the lowest paid employee of the business. The amount of the wages need to fit that facts (hours worked, going rate, ect..).

LJACPA (talk|edits) said:

18 November 2005
One general guideline I always use is, never let the salary be less than the distributions. After that, it's anyones guess.

DianeOffutt (talk|edits) said:

22 November 2005
I advise clients of the 60/40 rule, 60 being salary.

LJACPA (talk|edits) said:

23 November 2005
I just had an S Corp. s/h tell me yesterday that he was advised of the 60/40 'rule'. However, is this really a rule, per se, or just a oft-used recommendation?

Mpfllc (talk|edits) said:

24 November 2005
All of the above responses to remuneration for "S" corp owners are reasonable, however LJACPA has the real answer, in that salary should never be less than distributions. In years past IRS has overlooked this requirment in an "S" corporation, but are now beginning to take notice. One way to resolve this issue is to convert to an LLC which has no such remuneration requirement. Although I believe they will close that loophole one of these days. Have already had on audit of an "S" corp where the owner worked full time and the auditor allowed his salary to be substantially less than distributions, but only because it had been done that way for several years. I suspect they, IRS, do not want to face a precident setting issue just yet.

DZCPA (talk|edits) said:

25 November 2005
I do not agree with the distribution rule as noted above. Distributions have no relationship to the amount of time a shareholder spends on the business activity and how much hiring another person to do those tasks might costs. Making a high profit margin on income does not mean the shareholder should have a higher salary signing check or supervising employees. The IRS audits are so low that I do not spend much concern with whether the IRS will audit more returns in the future. I have only seen 3 audits last year out of 1,000 returns filed. Not much to worry about.I usually use a wage of $18 per hour times 2000 hours worked per year equaling $36,000 per year. We have never had a problem yet.

Sheldon (talk|edits) said:

28 November 2005
Seems to be a broad grey area, but I think it will get more attention as the IRS has hired more people. It may be okay for no compensation at times, where the business has not yet been profitable or is a new business for the first year. I then suggest that the owners pay themselves at least what they would hire someone for similar work. As a check on your method, distributions really should have some relationship to capital invested or retained in the business. I think that a straight percentage (like 60/40) may not hold up. Some taxpayers choose to be more agressive than others, but my preference is to have a salary that is based on hours, reasonable rate of pay, and move it up slightly each year (unless business or amount of work decreases). Have your clients put a reason for salary in the annual minutes. That should help document the reason the pay rate was chosen.

Rgreen (talk|edits) said:

2 December 2005
As far as all of the above comments, I am most closely alligned with DZCPA. I don't worry about 60/40 or whether the salary is greater than the distributions. I've never had one of my S Corps. audited, but the feedback I've heard from others is that the IRS has only really raised the issue when the stockholder takes ZERO salary (hogs get slaughtered).

KLRJR16 (talk|edits) said:

4 December 2005
There are more considerations in deciding salary and distributions than i have seen mentioned here. I had a plumber take the salary of his highest paid person. ( $36000 ). He also had $100,000 in profit distributions. My arguement with the IRS was that his salary matched the averages in our region for plumbers and the profit was his dividend as a shareholder. I successfully argued that the other four employees also earned profits for the company. So the circumstances should dictate the salary/dividend decision. If owner is the only worker, it would be hard to argue large profit dividends.You need a rational approach to your decisions, not a standard "rule of thumb". You need to impress on the IRS agent that the shareholder and the company are separate entities and to look at their audit with this in mind. And always, smile, act nice, offer food and drink, and a comfortable working environment for the Auditor.

Naa (talk|edits) said:

4 December 2005
I am not that familiar with the preparation of S-copr returns but I was under the imptresson that if a k1 is issued to the owner of an S-corp and the income is reported with self employment taxes being paid would that not cover requirement of salary as long as SE taxes are being paid? Does the salary hae to be in the form of a W2? Can somone answer this question for me ?

DZCPA (talk|edits) said:

4 December 2005
Naa, Income to an owner shown on a K-1 is not subject to self employment tax since they are not "self employed". Salaries are shown on a W-2 only.

Naa (talk|edits) said:

5 December 2005
DZCPA,

Do you know why we are then given an option on the pass through K1 (on the individual tax return) screen to enter self employment income, under other info (17): That section alone was part of the reason that I believed that we were able to choice the option of paying SE taxes on K1 income,as this entry generated an SE tax calculation for the taxpayer..Have I then been mis-using this option?

DZCPA (talk|edits) said:

6 December 2005
Naa, Not sure why your program shows that for a S Corp K-1 form. There is no line on the S Corp K-1 for self employment activity. The K-1 is issued to a shareholder of the corporation, not a employee or an outside contractor. S-Corp income does also not qualify as income for IRA or SEP IRA deductions.

Bjtlkj (talk|edits) said:

9 December 2005
Maybe Naa is looking at a K1 for an LLC.

Tonypa (talk|edits) said:

9 December 2005
I usually just use something reasonable as compared to net income, and I determine this as a year-end salary, unless the owner wants to take salary during the year. I know it opens up for a payroll audit, in that the year-end salary probably could be pro-rated over the year, but I use it at year end as a vehicle to pay their estimated taxes, since withholdings are deemed as paid equally throughout the year, thus reducing the chance of underpayment penalties. Also, I use the amount needed for withholding as another guide for determining the gross salary. This is still sort of unchartered territory, and we are all taking a bit of a chance in whatever method we used. I just think that as long as it looks reasonable on paper, you probably won't be audited. As an aside, a few months ago I read they are trying to pass that S Corp K-1's to participating owners will be subject to S/E tax, just like a partner in a partnership, so this may all be a moot point in the near future.

Cruiser (talk|edits) said:

10 December 2005
The present cases are all concerned with t/p's who paid no salary at all, and the IRS calling all S-Corp income as salary. Reasonable salary seems to be in the eye of beholder.

Pjs (talk|edits) said:

10 December 2005
Mpfllc said to convert the S corp to a LLC. I'd like to know how this is done without triggering tax consequences to the S corp shareholders. Effectively the S corp is liquidated and it's deemed a sale at FMV of the assets, the excess of such over the shareholders basis in the S corp being gain, some ordinary (depr recapture, etc.) and some capital gain.

Sandysea (talk|edits) said:

11 December 2005
I am in need of advice for a client who is a shareholdser/employee of an S-corp. Why would distributions to this s/h be more tax beneficial than payroll? The distributions are high and I am telling the client to pay himself a payroll check to write off distributions to the 40% and to pay enough in income taxes to offset the income from the corporation.

But my question is: Are distributions treated as income in the current year? And if so, are they then taxed at the same rate as income?

Thanks

DZCPA (talk|edits) said:

13 December 2005
Sandy, Distributions are not taxed ever unless they exceed a shareholders basis. What is taxed is the shareholder of a S Corp's share of profit (paid out or retained by Corp). They are taxed the same as wages except there is no social security taxes due on distributions.

Sandysea (talk|edits) said:

14 December 2005
Thank you DX. I realized that the share of income on the K-1 is taxed as income to the shareholders. The basis is what confused me :)

Umk395 (talk|edits) said:

14 December 2005
We prepare over 150 S Corp returns each year. We always advise our clients to pay reasonable compensation. For those who are unable (or unwilling) to determine "reasonable" compensation, we use a 50/50 rule, although we prefer the 60/40 rule. Never once had an audit on the issue. Main reason: The IRS is reluctant to place itself into the role of the DOL. The IRS is responsible for tax compliance, collection, et al. The Dept of Labor sets labor and wage standards. Cross-functionality is not something the US government does well. Also, if you think about it....if the IRS were to re-characterize a portion of the distributions as salary, they would be requiring the taxpayer to INCREASE his expenses! Not a comfortable role for the IRS to be ADDING deductions to the taxpayer's tax return!

Sandysea (talk|edits) said:

15 December 2005
I agree; but the increased salary would wash out in the 1040 return would it not? Yes, it would be deductible for the corporation, but the shareholders would increase their earnings and the tax benefit would not be realized as such in my opinion. The savings would be in the matching fica and unemployment taxes only don't you think?

I do have a client who has taken salary all year but has not made any payroll tax payments nor filed payroll tax returns for the current year. He also has no money to pay any taxes, so my suggestion to him is to close the corporation..it has only been in existence since August and he is not doing anything to be compliant. What are your thoughts on this? As well, his father has a corporation and has been paying his son a fee each week (which should have been treated as salary to the son's corporation) for work he is performing for him. His father takes salary and makes payroll tax deposits for himself, but in case the son closes his corp and does not pay any payroll taxes, would this expose the father to payroll taxes for the son? The son is basically a subcontractor, but it could be argued that he is an employee??

Mkelly (talk|edits) said:

29 December 2005
Please let me know if I can be a resource for your clients. My company has responded to the growing number of conversations surrounding payroll compliancy for S-Corporations. We have introduced a service that will allow pay the owner a salary, deposit the federal, state, and local taxes, file those tax returns, and create the W-2 at year end. We do this for a nominal fee of $30/month. We have helped s-corps all accross the country with this service. Sanysea, I'm sorry I do not have an answer for your question.

GS (talk|edits) said:

8 January 2006
One of my clients has S Corp for his side business and he works for large C corporation., this year he already satisfy Social Security payment via W-2 from the C corp. so he would like to “save” on the SS from the S – assuming he will get W-2 from the S corp as well – he will be exempt from his side but his S Corp will still need to pay it’s part to Social Security.

My question is – can he issue 1099 instead of W-2 as Director Compensation subject to SS, that way the S Corp will not pay SS and he will not pay because he already reached the cap…am I missing something?

DZCPA (talk|edits) said:

9 January 2006
GS, Employees do not get 1099's for compensation.

GS (talk|edits) said:

9 January 2006
DZCPA, thanks for the reply! I know that however- because my client is a full time employee (at the C corp.) and the S is for side consultation business - can't he invoice his own S corp. for Management services using 1099?

DZCPA (talk|edits) said:

9 January 2006
No. He is a part time employee of the S corp. He CAN get more then one W-2 in a year.

Casper (talk|edits) said:

9 January 2006
I briefly read what you've all been discussing... I'm getting a bit confused. I have my first S Corp client. They've been taking a "reasonable" salary all year and have had a very profitable year. Can they take a year-end distribution of profits / dividend distribution (as long as it doesn't exceed net profits or their basis)? I'm thinking a few thousand each. What are the steps involved??? Beginning with the owner/officers cutting themselves a check. It's reported how on the 1020-S? goes to the K-1 then to the 1040? It does NOT get added to W-2? Does it get 1099'd?

I appreciate the help.

Lois (talk|edits) said:

9 January 2006
I am reading a lot about this 60/40 rule. 60/40 of what - - gross income or net income?

DZCPA (talk|edits) said:

10 January 2006
There is NO RULE. Accountants are making their own rule to what they feel is a comfortable allocation. Officer salary in relation to S Corp profit before Officer salary.

LJACPA (talk|edits) said:

10 January 2006
Casper, generally, yes, they can take a pro-rata (based on ownership %) distribution of the profits, which should not exceed basis. There are really no 'steps' involved other than writing a check. Maybe a 'duh' comment, but only owners (who can also be officers) but not officers who are not owners can receive distributions. I assume that when you said '1020-S' you meant 1120S and yes, the distributions are reported on the 1120S, in several different ways. Distributions that do not exceed basis are not reported on Form 1040 and never on the W-2 or a 1099. Please forgive me for saying this, but these answers are very, very basis and general to some potentially very difficult issues. Please find someone to help you prepare this return.

Casper (talk|edits) said:

10 January 2006
LJACPA, Thank you for your response. Yes, I did mean 1120S (typo). Yes, I realize these are pretty basic questions. I thought I knew the answer to but then reading some of the discussions above, started to make me question myself. In the past, I had heard people (owner/officers of course) just write themselves a check. Obviously, it is a distribution not and expense and would therefore basically become subject to income tax when net profits flow thru to the 1040. I didn't mean specifically reporting the distribution on the 1040. Anywho, I appreciate the advise. I plan to have another CPA's assistance definitely. Thank you for your clarity.

Dgautney (talk|edits) said:

5 July 2006
Hello,

I currently work for an employer at $58.00 per year w-2. I have an offer of $60.00 on a 1099 basis. I am wondering that if my comapny makes the $60.00 per hour and I paymeself a reasonable salary such as $30-$35 an hour. Will making this move make financial sense? I am also hoping to be able to take advantage of other advantages of having an s-corp.

I know you are busy but I have that potential client awaiting my answer and I am unclear on the correct direction. Assistance is greatly appreciated.

David

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

5 July 2006
If you can justify that 30-35 as reasonable, you'll be $4500 ahead on SS taxes, which you should invest in retirement since you're foregoing the SS taxes. That will create another $1000 deduction...now the cost of being a corp with added year end filing and quarterly work will run $1-2000 depending on how an accountant wants to handle your work. But you're clearly ahead of the game if that hourly rate is reasonable.

Mikelim (talk|edits) said:

5 July 2006
I've always taken the position that "reasonable compensation" would be what an owner would pay to have comparable services performed by another person. I've also taken this without regard to the "intangible" quality that allows this specific owner to generate more revenues and profit than your averatge person.

For example, I have a ticket broker client that grosses $400K/year. He manages and operates the business, with 2 employees. We used a salary of $65K and distributions of $100K because $65K is what he paid himself per year before he incorporated, so he has history. In addition, for the duties that he performs as office manager, $65K would be a very reasonable salary.

Again, never had an audit, but I would be comfortable making this argument to an IRS auditor.

MSTguy (talk|edits) said:

6 July 2006
I was recently at a seminar where the instructor claimed he had a close acquaintance from the IRS who stated S-corp salary "reasonableness" is close to, if not the top, current priority for prospective examinations. He stated they aren't looking for those "slam-dunk" cases where no salary is taken and all distributions. Instead, they're looking for several big and small cases with "close calls". In other words, where salary and distributions might be closer, say 50/50. I don't think using 60/40 rules or any other "safe harbor" is appropriate. Instead, it seems "reasonableness" will first look to industry standards. If there's enough available cash and an owner is paying himself a "reasonable" salary in the eyes of the IRS, then the level of his distributions won't matter, low or exceedingly high. Even though so many clients can play the so-called "audit lottery", always remember that as tax practitioners there are certain regulations (professional standard - such as Circular 230) that do NOT allow you to sign a return if there's a certain percent chance (I don't remember the threshold) that a position won't stand against an audit. Just be careful - not only can your clients hurt themselves, they can hurt you. I don't want to sound paranoid, but caution is in order.

Chaplowj (talk|edits) said:

25 August 2006
this may sound like a dumb question, but why does it matter if they take a salary versus a distribution anyhow? the bottom line is that it all transfers over to their adjusted gross income on their 1040. so, the result would be the same tax liability.

Solomon (talk|edits) said:

25 August 2006
The Service wants some payroll taxes to pay my social security.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

August 25, 2006
It's all about SS taxes Chap. Only wages are subject to the 15.3% SS/FICA taxes. Income taxes are all the same, you're right.

Chaplowj (talk|edits) said:

25 August 2006
oh gotcha, thanks. i am not an accountant, but i do to credit analysis, which includes analyzing financial statements. also, if an s corp has two equal owners and assume that it is the first year in service. if one partner takes over 50% of his share of the equity of the company (including the current period earnings), would this be considered tax evasion (since he only paid taxes on 50% of the earnings but took a larger amount in distributions)? i would imagine his basis in the company would be brought to a negative and would think he would have to declare capital gains??? thanks in advance.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

August 25, 2006
Yeah, that's about right. (Sol: LOL at your edit, btw!!) The income that's taxed is the profit share. If he takes more than that, we've got schedules to keep on his basis and whether he took more than that, etc. and then have to deal with it accordingly.

Chaplowj (talk|edits) said:

25 August 2006
i was actually just browsing the net for a quick answer and found this site today, it is awesome!!! jr1 and sol, thanks for the fast feedback. since this topic kindof went dead, i hope its ok that i kindof took it in a new direction. but since we are on this, if the owner took greater than his share of equity in distributions, why not just take a loan from the company??? i mean, it makes sense. no cap gain taxes.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

August 25, 2006
Sure you're not an accountant? That's the trick, if you can call it a loan and keep it legit. Some more conservative accts never do that and always take it to income. I, rebel that I am maybe, have never taken one to income. But I am not beginning to document the heck out of these and consider whether I should or not....

Chaplowj (talk|edits) said:

25 August 2006
jr, according to your post on the other topic, you still have to pay 15% cap gains on the note as well??? that is bogus imo, i never heard of paying taxes on loans, but i assume their ruling is that since it is a related party transaction, they partially weight it as a distribution and partially a loan; in the fact that the tax rate is lower than the 28% normal cap gain tax.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

August 25, 2006
Not on the loan unless it's not repaid. So if there's a note, and the loan's not repaid, or you figure it won't be and then decide to tax it, it's at the cap. gain rates. Without a note, the same thing is ordinary income.

Chaplowj (talk|edits) said:

25 August 2006
jr, i was not going to ask this, but it really is bugging the s#it out of me. here is a paraphrase from your quote on the other topic you are postin on:

"As to the second, the rules require that if there is a note document for the excess, it will be treated as cap gain, 15% plus state tax. If no note, ordinary income, 28+% plus state. Big diff."

but on this thread you state that you don't have to pay the tax. just curious, thanks man.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

August 25, 2006
You sure have a lot of questions! That's ok...all I meant was that tax is due when you determine that that note won't be repaid, not when you create the note. I thought that maybe you'd misunderstood that along the way...

LJACPA (talk|edits) said:

26 August 2006
Boy, is this confusing! Chaplowj, if you have equal shareholders in an S corporation, they should receive equal distributions. That's the simple answer. If one takes greater distributions than the other, you open up a number of potential issues. One is the possibility of having the S election revoked because it could be construed that you have two classes of stock, which is not allowed. I just wonder why one s/h deserves more, why not just pay him/her more in salary? JR1, what does this mean, "Some more conservative accts never do that and always take it to income." Take what to income?

Jc (talk|edits) said:

26 August 2006
OK, let's get down to brass tacks -- have any of the many CPAs that have contributed to this discussion ever seen one of their S-Corps get audited and have reasonable compensation brought up by the agent if they actually *did* pay shareholders?

The reason that I ask, is that I've started an s-corp and will be paying myself an hourly rate, but I really want to minimize the rate for SS tax purposes. $23/hr is what I've originally come up with as enough to get by on while retaining the rest as profit (perhaps to be distributed in later tax years).

Jc (talk|edits) said:

26 August 2006
When you think about the IRS fervor regarding salary vs. dividend, the hyprocrisy of it all is really troubling. If you have an S-Corp, they'll go after you for disguising salary as dividends, and if you have a C-Corp, they'll go after you for disguising dividends as salary. It's all pretty laughably stupid.

Jc (talk|edits) said:

26 August 2006
Sure that's a ton of cash and all, but his business is actually illegitimate. This kind of thing made tech news a few months back, since to create an account for this type of online game you have to agree to terms and conditions, the most prominent of which is that you may not sell virtual currency for hard currency. It was smart for this chap to incorporate purely for liability reasons, forget that he's not saving any tax money since he's maxing out his SS wage base. If whoever runs this particular game decides to bring suit, it will be nice for him to at least be able to attempt to protect his personal assets behind the corp, though from what I've read, it's unlikely that the protection will really hold up considering the owner and only shareholder of the business was willfully violating a legal agreement for profit.

Jc (talk|edits) said:

26 August 2006
My apologies, wrong topic :)

DZCPA (talk|edits) said:

26 August 2006
Jc, No audits yet. They might start soooooon as some accountants have said for the past 10 years!

Solomon (talk|edits) said:

29 August 2006
The only valid 60/40 rule is for marked to market 1256 contracts.

DZCPA (talk|edits) said:

29 August 2006
How about the 90/10 rule. 90% of your problems come from 10% of your clients.

Solomon (talk|edits) said:

29 August 2006
Amen!

Chaplowj (talk|edits) said:

31 August 2006
if a s-corp had a net loss for the period and you want to know if the owner put capital in the company to cover any losses, where can you tell? sometimes on the k-1 from the s-corp, they reconcile the capital account and sumetimes its just this barcode looking thing. in this situation, the k-1 does not reconcile it. i would assume if there was a capital infusion that it would be located on the schedule m-2 or page 3 of the tax return. let me know.

thanks in advance

Expat (talk|edits) said:

5 October 2006
Hi, I am an expat living in europe. For the past couple of years I have declared the foriegn income exclusion by physical presence. I intend to do this again for 2006. The situation I have for 2006 is the offshore I am an employee of is no longer an option and I now have a two part salary. One in an EU country (taxed there) and the other (main part) which can be sent anywhere. Both together are about 85k split 12k and 73k. While I have looked at setting up an offshore company in a US approved place like Cyprus (no FICA) it would be much easier and cheaper to do a US S Corp and I can manage it. The question is what guidelines should be used for salary/distribution in this case? The idea of course is to minimize FICA. I will be consulting with a couple of accountants in the US as well but like to hear from anyone else with some experience in how the IRS would treat a low salary in this case. for example a 20/80 split?

I would be the only employee of the S Corp and would not have any expenses for 2006. Additionally the S corp will only come into existence in Nov 2006.

DZCPA (talk|edits) said:

6 October 2006
Divide it up based on where you work and read the above 40 posts for more very important information.

Et200 (talk|edits) said:

10 October 2006
ok, I have read thru this post (very interesting & informative), and have a few questions. I am a s corp business owner which I started as the sole shareholder in '04. Both '04 & '05 have posted a loss. I self funded the start-up and have added additional capital and debt since.

I understand basis to be the amount of money I have put into the company. I understand the salary/disbursement relationship to a point. It seems more applicable to an established (& profitable) company. As start-up, I was living off savings in year one (but did pay out $12k in Dec '04). In year two (having run out of savings), I paid out to myself a bare minimum (no where near a reasonable hourly wage). The amount I paid myself is less than 1/2 of what I put in (basis) to date.

What is the most tax efficient way to define the money I have taken out of the company to pay my living expenses? Should I classify some of the capital put into the company as a loan, and thus some of the money was repayment of the loan? Can I claim a higher distbursment ratio as a start-up?

I need to minimize my tax exposure for the simple reason that I am out of money. What to do?

Thanks.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

October 10, 2006
Don't worry about ratios with losses. You can repay yourself your money anytime...just keep track of your basis, since losses and repayments both reduce it. Eventually, you'll either not be able to repay yourself without tax, or be able to deduct further losses...until you earn some profit or throw more cash in the pot. Hope that makes sense...

Et200 (talk|edits) said:

11 October 2006
JR1 - thank you for your reply. This comes as a relief.

So, it is ok to have zero salary combined with disbursements if the company has shown a loss? That won't set off alarms w/ the irs and be the proverbial hog?

If this is the case, I have a related question. I set up health care thru my company, and have the company pay the premium. Given a company can deduct max 30% of health insurance and the remaining 70% has to show as employee compensation, should I list the 70% as a disbursement or as compensation?

Just to be sure in calculating repayments & losses in regards to basis. If I put in $100k at start-up, lost $30k and repayed myself $30k in year 1, my remaining basis would be $40k?

If I again lost $30k in yr 2, would I then be left with a $10k basis - & if so would any repayment over $10k have to be classified as either salary or capital gains?

Sorry if this is basic for your guys, but I am just trying to be sure of the fundamentals before I bring everything to an accountant.

Dennis (talk|edits) said:

11 October 2006
100% of health insurance premiums paid for a more than 2% shareholder are reportable as wages, although not subject to SE tax.

Your basis assumptions are correct, although from what you are saying it is unlikely you will receive re[ayment in excess of basis without income.

Et200 (talk|edits) said:

11 October 2006
Thanks, Dennis. I guess I got confused w/ over/under 2% shareholder tax on HI.

Is there any benefit to posting a salary in my situation (new company w/ a 2 yr loss), or should I just take money out as repayment/disbursement until either the company is profitable, or I close it up?

Thepeg (talk|edits) said:

6 November 2006
As an S-Corp owner and one who lived through the audits on this topic - namely taking distributions in lieu of salary (the IRS won) - I finally found one reason that in my mind justifys taking a salary. It also helps me get past all the confusion on the subject - which is massive as indicated by all the questions and comments above. Basically, taking a salary allows the company to contribute to a SEP in amounts equal to 25% of gross salary. Keep in mind I'm the only one in the business. There is an upper limit which I don't recall at present. The SEP contributions reduce profits/distributions keeping the K-1 pass through lower. So my goal is to max out the SEP contributions. That requires me to take a salary. So I contribute to Soc Sec and get a SEP too. That's a good trade-off in my mind. I just wish my accountant was able to explain it this way when I first started - late '80's. He was POSITIVE that an S-Corp was the way to go.

Sandysea (talk|edits) said:

6 November 2006
Your accountant too may have been speaking of the tax savings to an S-corp if you don't have a state income tax as we don't in Florida. An S-corp and individuals are not taxed in this state, so it is the entity of choice for many here

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

November 6, 2006
You're way ahead on cash, Peg...but it shouldn't have ever just been spent. When you legally find ways to dodge SS taxes, you need to take that money and invest it to cover the same things that the SS system does. You'll get a 4-6x return on it, too.

Thepeg (talk|edits) said:

8 November 2006
JR1 - Consider that a start up business will be scratching and clawing for cash to payout to the owner in the beginning. After all, he needs income to pay the personal bills. Given that scenario, if the S-Corp is only producing 20 or 30K beyond its operating costs in the first year, you're suggesting it MUST be taken as salary as opposed to distributions? Consider too that most of that cash may only come into the business very near to the end of year. In short, there is NO cash available to pay a salary to start with. So if you approach year end with an influx of cash, what do you do? Pay one month of "salary" of $20,000?

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

November 8, 2006
I realize that this thread has gone lengthy, but your salary must be reasonable. If there's no money to pay a salary, i.e. no profit, then there's no salary. If your only profit is 20k, then yes, you'd be obliged to take a bonus pay on 12/31. As profits increase, the salary will remain fairly steady based on prevailing wage levels for your job in your area. That's where you save the cash...on the SS taxes. But you should still invest into yuor own retirement/disability/life ins. Hope that makes more sense. And I guess the answer should be yes. If your profit is less than a reasonable salary, it should all go to salary, and it can be paid at year end.

Lnt (talk|edits) said:

8 March 2007
Hi,

Myself and my husband has S corportation in which he is acting as an independant consultant and I am the 100% shareholder. He is getting 1099misc for 40000 out of 80000 that we made in a year. Since I am working as a full time analyst in a corporation and not 100% actively participated in the business, I did not give any w2 to myself and thinking about distributing $40000 as dividend. Is there any other way that I can treat this amount? Can I retain part of this money and distribute only $20000 to my self as dividend?

Diego (talk|edits) said:

12 March 2007
Any advice with recent experience or problems on showing income subject to SE taxes if there were no salaries paid from S Corp in 06, TP made estimated payments to cover for 1040 but there were no witholdings in S Corp so cannot show as officers comp. might be flagged at payrol audit. I was thinking of doing it via management fee to Schedule C. TP working from home so home office use will be on Sched C.

Stoutsgal (talk|edits) said:

14 March 2007
Hello: I am not an accountant but have been doing my husbands business taxes for the past 4 years (pity him). Here's our situation, if you could offer me some advice. He is the the sole employee of a Florida based S-Corp. We stated losses for the first 2 years, with a salary paid to my hubbie of ~ $4,500 for each year. The company's income ranges from $25-35K (graphic & web design). Last year we stated a small profit of about $400. The company pays to us as expenses: 1/3 of our mortgage (works from home), 1/3 use of the car (he drives all over meeting clients and such), the cell phone bill, and computer rental from us.

I have always been very confused as to how to treat the checks my husband writes to himself. I apply them to the money owed by the company for the above mentioned expenses, and apply the difference to salary, figuring out the payroll type taxes from the difference amount. Earlier this year, I spoke to the IRS to get some clarification as to whether or not this money is considered salary or something else (an accountant we went to said we should treat as distributions). She said my husband was not considered an employed, changed it in our files and told me I did not have to file anymore 941's. I was quite pleased to hear this, but it just didnt seem right to me. After reading the above threads it seems I will have to go back and file these quarterly reports!?

My questions are: 1. If the company is only bringing in a small income, shouldnt his salary be proportional to the income? If he was working for an established design firm he would be making much more, but he is also an artist so divides his time between both the company and his art. 2. As the sole employee are we responsible for federal and state unemployment taxes? 3. Does the "salary" we pay to my husband have to come in some sort of normal, weekly/bi-weekly fashion verus the checks he writes when he needs it? 4. Whats the best way to go about paying my husband?

Thank you very much for your time.

Vickytown (talk|edits) said:

14 March 2007
If a Sub S shareholder takes draws in excess of basis and you know it will probably never be paid back as a loan, how do you report it as taxable income on the K-1? Thanks for any help

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

March 14, 2007
Stouts: yes, if the profit is minimal, the salary question doesn't matter. When it's a side biz, that's often the case. Just be careful that you don't end up with decent profit and draws against it without salary. Yes, when you're filing payroll taxes, you're in for all of them. 3. I don't think so, have often wondered about this myself. But I don't believe that the frequency of payroll is regulated in any way. 4. He can get reimbursements, profit draws, and salary. All are different.

Vicky: I don't believe that it's a K1 item. It goes on Sch. D of your 1040.

Vickytown (talk|edits) said:

14 March 2007
Would it go as a sale of stock with no basis - short term? Thanks for any help

Stoutsgal (talk|edits) said:

14 March 2007
Thanks for the response JR1!! How does the IRS know it is a side business (is there a way I can communicate that to them?)

Regarding reimbursements, profit draws and salary... Since he pays himself so nominally can we call that money profit draw (I am assuming reimbursements is reimbursment for capital put into the company?) and just report it as personal income, bypassing the payroll taxes?

I really hate those quarterly filings, and the penalties I end up paying by filing late is seeming to offset the benefits of having the S-Corp.

Any reading material, websites, etc you could recommmend on how to correctly go about doing our books, salary, etc. would be most appreciated. I have been learning as I go along but would love to have a more definitve formulas and methods to attacking our business accounting. It is always a worry for me whether I am doing things correctly.

Thanks again!

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

March 14, 2007
Vicky, the basis would be whatever you still have invested in stock or loans or undistributed profits...

Stout: They don't other than that the numbers are obviously smaller. If you only show 10k in profit for example, no one's going to get excited. Whether you can pass by the PR filings is a matter of how much profit is there, and if more than 10k or so (this is just talking out loud, no authority for that number)...then you need to address what a salary should be even for PT work. I agree, the filings are a pain, get some help, you spend more in penalties than it costs to do them! I charge 100/qtr for one-person PR filings...and Stout: I AM THE BOOK! Seriously, I don't know...I'd rather see you spend the money on a pro's help, even if it's infrequent so that you don't get a nasty surprise somewhere. Or stay here and read all the S threads. That'll tell you everything you want.

Vickytown (talk|edits) said:

14 March 2007
Thanks for your help JR

Blrgcpa (talk|edits) said:

14 March 2007
You may need the help of a cpa, probably to do the work on a quarterly basis.

Before any profit can be taken from the business, there must be p/r. Your husband is an employee of the s corp, in if p/t. All p/r taxes must be paid.

You can take profit from the AAA acct if there is any. Since the prior years had a loss, the AAA a/c may still not have a profit.

You can't reimburse for capital. If there is a shareholder loan acct, you can get a reimbursement from that so long as the acct has a credit bal.

Reimbursement of expenses is fine if you keep expense reports and do it on a regular periodic basis.

If the s corp pays for se health ins, that must also be added to the w-2, without any w/h.

There are many issues here any a non prof can get into trouble.

You need professional help.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

March 14, 2007
I'll disagree with this: Before any profit can be taken from the business, there must be p/r. That's generally true, but when you're talking about very small profits, or a non-owner run company, it isn't. Based on what I read above, the first may be true. But agree, handling S's isn't for the DIY crowd.

Stoutsgal (talk|edits) said:

14 March 2007
If I were to employ the assistance of a CPA what exatcly do I need to provide to them? Do I have to still do the data entry into Quickbooks?

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

March 14, 2007
It's always a matter of time and money. Use whichever you have the most of! Most of my clients keep their own QB, yes.

Kevinh5 (talk|edits) said:

14 March 2007
Stouts, there are other professional preparers out there besides CPAs. Enrolled Agents, for example, concentrate on taxes instead of accounting.

OR (talk|edits) said:

15 March 2007
OK, here's a good one. I am a Lic Tax Consultant, not practicing, but have done S-corp returns in the past. Friends have come to me for advice, I'm not being paid, so have some flexibility, "creativity"

Income/Losses below are after salary, if pd. Distributions paid are after salary.

Client started bus in 2002:

2002, Net Loss ($10,000)$00 salary,$00 distributions

2003, Net Inc $20,000, $00 salary,, $00 distrib. (repaid loan to SH)

2004, Net Inc $87,000, $00 salary!! $26,000 distrib.

2005, Net Loss($6,000),$20,000salary, $41,000 distrib.

2006, Net Inc $5,000, $30,000 salary, $2k distrib.

They have NOT filed 1120S or 1040 since 2002!! (lucky me, that's my job!)

I have thought about filing 941's as follows:

2003 w/$5k in salary

2004 w/$10k in salary (as a warm up, new business, just starting to be profitable).

They just take the hit on late filing, late pmt penalties to avoid the $0 salary in 2004 and all the distrib being deemed salary, which I have heard could happen, but have not seen discussed here. I know $10,000 in salary may sound low, but I have to weigh the risk of a low salary, w/all the penalties on the late 941.

But, if they had no distrib in 2003 (they repaid loans to SH instead) and after reading all your great comments, I am starting to think it may not be necessary to file a (very late!!) 941 2003 and I could suggest a $15,000 salary in 2004 instead.

At least they haven't filed the returns yet! Thanks for your help & suggestions!

Bottom Line (talk|edits) said:

15 March 2007
I'd also lien toward not doing payroll for 2003. Not a lot of income and horrible penalties. Question for 2005 - with a $6,000 loss, where's the money coming from of a $41,000 distribution?

OR (talk|edits) said:

15 March 2007
Thanks for your comment, Bottom Line. In '04 they had an $87k income, and only $26k in distrib. 2004: $87k-$26k sal=$61. 2005: $20k sal+$41k distr=$61k. $6k loss in '05 is auto depr

DCH (talk|edits) said:

17 March 2007
Hi all, great info in this thread. Have q's about particular situation. I started S corp in '06 with 3 equal owner/officers. Each contributed $1500 to get started. Company had net profit of $15k for YE 12/31/06 on 1120S. Each member K-1 shows $5k ordinary income. The $15k profit sits in retained earnings, no money has been taken out as of yet.

The company continues to be profitable in '07 and will begin making payments to owner/officers. So I'm looking for tax advantaged way to pay out, both the retained earnings now, and profits throughout '07, using 50/50 split to start.

Can the retained earnings be divided & assigned to owner equity accounts giving each $6500 in equity - and subsequently, can $5k be pulled out from owner equity account w/o tax liability? If not, how is this classified and what solution?

As for regular payments, the salary portion is obviously subject to payroll taxes & reporting, but what about the distributions? Does the corp have to withold/pay anything on those or just rite checks and report distributions at end of year? 1099-div?

I'm new to this so thanks for your patience and insight.

Kevinh5 (talk|edits) said:

17 March 2007
I would recommend taking some classes in S Corporations.

DCH (talk|edits) said:

17 March 2007
Kevin - good advice, will pursue. Class recommendations? Any immediate insight on questions at hand?

Jdugancpa (talk|edits) said:

17 March 2007
3 equal owners/officers. 50/50 split. Better start with math class.

DCH (talk|edits) said:

17 March 2007
Jd - if you read earlier posts you'll see references to 50/50 split of salary vs. distribution, as opposed to 60/40, and in contrast to some who suggest the salary must be appropriate for the industry, etc. That was the intended context. Obviously 3 equal owners would each receive 1/3 of profit. Questions at hand:

$15k of retained earnings in '06, reported on 1120s/K-1s. What is best way to pay it out now?

For future payments to owner/officers, at 50% salary/50% distribution (see the math), I understand salary subject to P/R withholding/reporting. Question is what about distributions?

Jdugancpa (talk|edits) said:

17 March 2007
Much apolgies. I've followed this post off and on, but too long to reread mid-tax season. Hope you took my comments lightly, as intended. In partial answer to your quesion, dividends may be paid from retained earnings of an S corp without being taxed when they come out. They are subject to neither income taxes nor FICA taxes. Having said that, there are pitfalls to fall in with an S corp and you should consider seeing a tax professional to guide you through the maze.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

March 17, 2007
And there is NO FREAKIN' SUCH THING AS RATIO'S to determine proper salaries......Stop it.

Kevinh5 (talk|edits) said:

17 March 2007
That's one of the first things I teach when I'm teaching S Corp classes.

Jdugancpa (talk|edits) said:

17 March 2007
JR, you must have inadvertantly hit your CAPS LOCK key when you were typing because I am sure you don't feel so strongly about that issue as to cause you to holler at anyone :)

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

March 17, 2007
OH YES I FREAKIN' DO!!!!!!!! And just so you know that I know how to find that key....

CTurner555 (talk|edits) said:

17 March 2007
Just finished a 1120S for a new client. 2 shareholders - husband and wife; not involved in the business. They took distributions of profits of roughly $28,000. Son in law runs business, and receives reasonable salary. Profit around $30,000 flows to in-laws; no salary. JR1, don't turn caps on, I'm getting to my question. I'll be meeting with the client next week to drop off return and asking more questions. If the intent for the distributions is some sort of buy out (New client mentioned that the previous CPA had not asked questions at all when doing the YE; some prior year balance sheet #'s were wrong....has there been any planning?), wouldn't they be better off with a sale of the business? Wouldn't there be capital gain treatment then? Fuzzy mind from all this work; and would appreciate thoughts.


JR1 (talk|edits) said:

March 17, 2007
We can edit out the 2nd, no worries. Your shareholders are fine without salary, tho' since they don't work in the business. And the officer salary line probably has son's on it, so no audit flags. If they want to sell the business, that's a whole 'nuther question. For now, since they're taxed on the profits whether taken or not, they may as well take them anyway. Cap gain would be available if the son wants to buy the stock.

DCH (talk|edits) said:

17 March 2007
JD - it is a long post... thanks for clarification on retained earnings/distro.

JR1/Kevin - Using ratios is indeed a specious approach, albeit one used by many tax professionals. I realize the owner salary must be appropriate for job function and industry. In a scenario where SMBs have regular income and can draw a regular salary, the remaining profit as a distribution at year end is more obvious.

But what about a biz with sporadic work, i.e project related and/or part time w/out sound annual income projections? Should an owner be expected to draw a regular salary throughout the year and potentially end up w/no distributions, even though a distribution would be in order based on work done and level of profit? Or should the owner draw some distributions as well throughout the year based on the profit above and beyond the appropriate salary for each project?

Bottom Line (talk|edits) said:

17 March 2007
Feds don't require regular payments throughout the year. (Remember to file your 941 though.) Different states though may vary for unemployment. Florida doesn't care. Many businesses here in Florida wait until the end of the year to do payroll. I remember someone saying a few months ago that NY wanted even payments throughout the year. Don't know what state you're in (please complete your profile) but someone may be able to advise.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

March 18, 2007
Exactly. Thanks, BL. On 12/31 you make your bonuses and do the final PR. Many S's draw a minimal salary all year long, and more profit draws, until year end, and then bonus, cover the income tax liablities Jan. 15. How you get there doesn't matter. Sporadic income still doesn't explain some kind of split based on...what? Convenience? We really need to gather together and be consistent as a professional community to ensure that the reasonable salary has sway with authorities. It's when they get wind that we don't know what we're doing that say, "Screw it, SE tax all of it." That'll be much simpler then, but not what we needed or wanted.

Kevinh5 (talk|edits) said:

18 March 2007
JR, while they're at it, they can SE tax all LLC income too. LOL As if we knew what we were doing.

ZedLee (talk|edits) said:

20 March 2007
I am doing first year taxes for my C Corp turned S Corp and I have been taking minimal draws to pay the bills and to live on and no salary. I am still getting used to this new "mind set" of C Corp. I work the company full time and other occassional workers are 1099 recipients. If I show a loss on my 1120S, will I most likely be able to slide by for my first year or should I ammend the situation and file a late 1099 or W2 for myself? Advice greatly appreciated.

Thanks, Lee

ZedLee (talk|edits) said:

20 March 2007
Sorry, I meant new "mind set" of S Corp. You see I've been really confused since I incorporated in 2005 and don't know what I am!

Bottom Line (talk|edits) said:

20 March 2007
Only first year and showing a loss so can probably slide by. Question though - you say you have a loss. Where's the money coming from for your minimal draws to live on?

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

March 20, 2007
You are messed up! You should be fine, tho', with a loss...no red flags wave for that. Now get some pr started for this year.

YSB (talk|edits) said:

20 March 2007
Hi, we have a two partners S Corp and the same partners also own a LLC. The partners get W2 from the S Corp. Can the S Corp writes a check to the LLC and the LLC pays the partners as independent contractors and issue 1099 MISC to them? The reason we want to do this is to be able to contribute to SEP IRA that has been setup under each partner's name (not SCorp). Is this the right way to do it? (S Corp does have other employees hired)

Wwtaxes (talk|edits) said:

20 March 2007
I do about a dozen S Corp returns a year, and they are relatively basic, so when I run into something a little off the beaten path, I tend to get confused. I have a new S Corp client: The husband is the sole worker bee, and the wife is the sole shareholder (apparently to be minority owned). I'm sorry if this is so absurdly basic, but are there any gotchas I have to watch out for if the sole shareholder is not participating, but is married to the only real participant??? I can't really think of anything that I would have to do differently from a more typical' scenario, but it's nagging at me that I'm missing something.

Moneric (talk|edits) said:

20 March 2007
Wwtaxes - if they want to take advantage of the minority ownership then she must be an active participant. They couldn't possible get throught the MBE/WBE registration process without her active participation. Therfore, she would get a salary.

Regarding reasonable compensation - it is different for every S corporation, there is no rule of thumb. It is unlikely that a salary of the max FICA rate will be questioned. I use my gut, or the "smell test" and then look at the situation on a company by company basis. FYI localities must be looking at this too. I had an S corp owner take no salary on company with a loss and take a distribution of 5,000 (clearly prior year profits & to pay parior year taxes!), and the locality wanted to know why she didn't take a salary. OYVEH!

Cdwoodscpa (talk|edits) said:

24 March 2007
Hi, I am new to this board and would appreciate any comments in regard to the situation I have run into. I have an S corporation that is undergoing an employment tax audit (shareholder salaries = Zero). The S corporation is a restaurant with two shareholders. Neither shareholder participates in the business, other than to drive to the restaurant to pick up their monthly distribution check. In fact, one of the shareholders lives 2 1/2 hours away from the restaurant. They have a manager in place (who is a family member, a nephew I think)who handles all aspects of the restaurant. This includes hiring, firing, vendor selection, you name it they do it. And when they cannot get something done, the manager calls me and I help get the matter resolved. The shareholders basically invest the money, get the restaurant open and sit back and collect the profits. Per my phone call with an IRS agent today, he informed me that even minimal services performed by the shareholder would result in some form of salary payment. Well, I do not consider driving to a restaurant to pick up a monthly check a form of "minimal services". I cannot find any IRS law that clearly defines minimal service. All of my research appears to not require the salary if the shareholders do not perform any services for the business. Does anyone else have any experience with this subject and could you point me in the right direction? One of the shareholders has ownership interest in numerous S corporations, (of which he provides NO services - all the businesses are located in a town other than where he lives, usually up to an hours drive to the closest restaurant.) Your comments will be greatly appreciated!

Peteo2662 (talk|edits) said:

24 March 2007
In reading through this thread one topic has not come up which I believe is very important when dealing with this issue. An S-Corporation is a corporation and if it acts like a corporation is suppose to act it makes for a great defense on these type of challanges. Address shareholder/Director/Officer Comp in the minute book. If you are going to have little or no Comp due to Financial constriants indicate that and state why. In other words if the debt ratios of the Corp are way out of line, even shareholder debt, that IS (have aurgued and won) reasonable reason for reduced Comp. The requirement for shareholder comp is judged by what the shareholder actually does and the situation the corporate entity finds itself in. If he is an investor in essence a Small Directors Fee and covering cost will keep you out of trouble with the Service. Accountants tend to get Bogged down with this issue. If a Lawyer Bills 2300 hours and claims 15,000 in w-2 income and 150,000 in distributions he is going to have trouble with an examination. These issues just take a common sense approach, IMHO.

Kevinh5 (talk|edits) said:

24 March 2007
Cdwoods, wrap up the audit, request conference with manager, then appeals if necessary. In your unique case, I think no salaries are appropriate since there are no services, and I think you will win in appeals, but have to go through the administrative levels if you hope to recover your fees in the event of tax court. Good luck. Let us know how it goes and how much time it took to get your truth recognized by the service.

Cdwoodscpa (talk|edits) said:

24 March 2007
Kevinh5, Thanks for the moral support. Another CPA in my office wants me to go straight to the manager on this one. She believes the auditor has already made up his mind before he has even been presented with any facts. We have not even had our initial meeting, only a telephone call up to this point. However, when I explained to the agent that the only participation involved was picking up a monthly distribution check, he indicated that if in the course of picking up the check, he helped deliver food to a table, this would constitute taxable services subject to wages. We both feel this is absurd! Armed with this information, would you immediately contact the agent's manager or would you wait to see how it played out at the initial meeting? I have always been one to treat agents with "peaches and cream" due to the fact I believe you will get nowhere by making an auditor mad. This method has proven successful for me in the past. What is your opinion?

Kevinh5 (talk|edits) said:

24 March 2007
See where it goes, stay calm, you don't want her taking out her frustration on your client by digging until she finds something else.

LAEsquire (talk|edits) said:

31 March 2007
Peteo et al - Thought you might find this interesting, if you haven't seen:

"Johnny" Edwards 1998 tax return (PDF file, $360,000 salary, $5 million S corp profit distrib):

http://www.taxhistory.org/thp/presreturns.nsf/Returns/C7CBBC2B133D704585256F08004F5E7F/$file/edwards98.pdf

http://www.rothcpa.com/archives/000873.php - CPA article discussing the same.

Cicine (talk|edits) said:

9 April 2007
My husband and I own an LLC and file as S Corp, we are each paid a monthly salary,and filing 941 and tax payments. Our CPA wants us to increase our withholding to 20% and also make $2000.00 quarterly ES payments. If we need a certain amount of money each month for our personal bills, do we increase our Gross wages in order to make these payments and extra withholding? Or do we just pay the taxes next April 15th as needed drawing from the company? To me it's like robbing Peter to pay Paul. When the bottom line is it's all coming from the company anyway. Am I required to make these ES payments or may I just wait and pay more if needed at tax time?

Bottom Line (talk|edits) said:

9 April 2007
If you don't pay in enough during the year, you can get a penalty.

Kevinh5 (talk|edits) said:

9 April 2007
Seems if you can't live on your after tax income you've either got to get more income or reduce your outflow. Maybe your CPA didn't want to tell you to make some hard choices.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

April 9, 2007
You don't have to make Es's if you can cover the taxes due with a bonus that's less than your gross wage from the S corp. Chat with him some more, after next week, you may have misunderstood. I've had clients who thought I was setting their take home pays...like I have that kind of power.

Bottom Line (talk|edits) said:

9 April 2007
I usually try to keep people out of the estimated tax system and instead adjust the withholding on their wages. Sometimes they don't even receive a check because the net check is set aside for withholding.

Kevinh5 (talk|edits) said:

9 April 2007
let them try to live on THAT income!!! That will teach them.

Bottom Line (talk|edits) said:

9 April 2007
It's all in planning ahead :)

Healthe (talk|edits) said:

14 April 2007
i read the entire thread - useful. thank you.

im a S corp and wondering what to do: i didnt take a salary for 2006 and profit for the company was $29K

gross sales were $240K

if i put 0 as the salary - that is true as i didnt pay any taxes. yet i may get audited.

if i put 10K as the salary - that isnt true unless i pay back SS taxes - how do i do that and is it worth to pay the late fees/penalties?

i see some people saying that i need to pay that as a bonus and pay all of it as salary - but i am too late to pay tax on it -

help :)

thanks ben

MrNatrl (talk|edits) said:

16 April 2007
My wife and I are the only shareholders of a Florida S Corporation, and we started a new DBA home-based business this year under the corporation. Since the profits were small, we are taking them all as wages. My questions are, do we need to send ourselves a W-2? Otherwise, where would we report the income on our 1040? Are we considered self-employed, or employees of the corporation? How and where do we pay our SS and unemployment taxes. Thanks in advance!

Dsglouise (talk|edits) said:

16 April 2007
When you pay yourself wages you have to file quarterly return. If you didn’t, and do it now (and file w-2), you’ll get penalty for late filing.

You have following options: 1. file late quarterly reports, and w-2 and pay late penalties, ss and unemployment taxes 2. Write yourself 1099-misc instead, and treat yourself a self-employed this year, pay ss tax. 3. Don’t receive any compensation and treat everything as a profit from your company. Don't pay ss and unemployment taxes. The correct way is the first option: you pay here ss and unemployment tax. To avoid penalties, you can choose the second option. You pay only ss tax If you have some other income, and already paid SS tax some place else, you probably can choose the 3rd option (if your business income is not significant). You don't pay ss and unemployment tax, but you might be questioned why you didn't pay.

Sandysea (talk|edits) said:

16 April 2007
You have another business owned by the S corporation? I don't understand if what you are saying is that you have an S corporation and the S corporation "owns" an LLC DBA taxed as a sole proprietorship? Or are you saying that the S corporation is paying you wages? The DBA is what is throwing me here :)

MrNatrl (talk|edits) said:

16 April 2007
Thanks Dsglouise. It appears option 1 is the way to go to keep it all legal. I was just wondering if there might be something I missed.

Sandysea, I've pretty much confused myself as well. The S-Corp is DBA under another name. So I guess the S-Corp is paying us wages since we didn't need another EIN, according to the IRS. I thought there might be a way of paying SS and unemployment taxes without going through the W-2 filings. There won't be any Federal Income taxes due. Thanks.

Bottom Line (talk|edits) said:

20 April 2007
MrNatrl - Please, please, please find a tax professional.

Jdugancpa (talk|edits) said:

20 April 2007
Hey, can't we put a fork in this thread? It's done. Leave it around for good reading, but don't add any more to it. If you have a question about this topic after reading all of this, start a new thread.

Wwtaxes (talk|edits) said:

20 April 2007
I agree that this one is getting hard to follow. I think what we need is an article on this that refers to the various discussions and summarizes the key points. I don't know how the site handles articles, but I know I posted one by accident once! I'd be willing to start it if I could get edits from others.

Kevinh5 (talk|edits) said:

20 April 2007
you use the search field to the left in yellow, with the term "S Corp Salary" or "S Corp payroll" or similar phrase. It's really quite easy, and I've already edited the "Ask a question" page to suggest searching these common topics.

Joe189 (talk|edits) said:

24 April 2007
How would I determine reasonable Salary. My spouse's last group, S-Corp partners made 1.3 mil per yr total and 300k was payroll the rest K-1 by their CPA.

Normal employee pay for my spouse's occupation is 300k per yr(I guess justification behind old group?). We are starting a new business and I established an S-Corp. So workload for 2007 is maybe equal to 8 months of regular employment. However, as a new business I expect only 400k. So 300k payroll and 100 K-1 seems we are disporportionately taking a bigger payroll tax hit than necessary.

So does 60/40=240k payroll and 160k seem appropriate or hopefully less payroll? Or maybe my thought is 300k/12month=25k per month x 8 months worklaod(new business)=200k payroll and 200k K-1.

Any suggestions?

I appreciate your comments. =-)

Sandysea (talk|edits) said:

24 April 2007
The question is what cash is available for a new business and what would any other individual charge for services in a start up company? Certainly...if the prior wages were high it was that they built a successful business....but in the meantime, what is a reasonable salary for a person in a start up organization?

In this case, distributions play a key role...don't let distributions be an unreasonable amount versus salary :)

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

April 24, 2007
And don't look at it from a ratio standpoint. Visit the salary sites if you need to confirm a salary, but for a startup, it's not unreasonable to take significantly less, entirely justifiable.

Wwtaxes (talk|edits) said:

24 April 2007
I also look at where else the profits come from. If you are making a profit off of subcontractors or employees, or off of hardgoods sold as well as labor, then I tend to lighten up on 'ratio' issues, but I agree that a ratio is not the whole story (even though my past accountant told me this!). I look at reasonable wages for this type of work, hours worked (8 months certainly plays into this, or if you only work half time, etc), and where the profit is coming from.

Joe189 (talk|edits) said:

30 April 2007
Thanks all very helpful

Sjc729 (talk|edits) said:

7 May 2007

Jdugancpa (talk|edits) said:

8 May 2007
Sjc, I moved your question to a new thread.

Ian7777 (talk|edits) said:

29 June 2007
Ian, I moved your question also. This question is too long and too old so start anew for better answer. http://www.taxalmanac.org/index.php/Discussion:Ian777%27s_Question

Sgallagher (talk|edits) said:

18 September 2007
This thread is old, old, old and long, long long. Can't you get the picture? Your question has been moved to: http://taxalmanac.com/index.php/Discussion:SGallagher%27s_Question

Jdugancpa (talk|edits) said:

18 September 2007
To other late comers to the party: Please post your additional questions to a new thread.

Morrow (talk|edits) said:

23 October 2007
I read that in an S corp the principal needs to take a payroll salary to $97,500 this year to make "reasonable salary" for social security before taking disbursements. Does this sound familiar to anyone? Thanks!

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

October 23, 2007
You read incorrectly. Not that your reading skills suck, but that the writer's skills suck.

Morrow (talk|edits) said:

23 October 2007
So, If I'm the owner of an S Corp and plan to take $120k in salary during the year, would it be safe to take $72k in salary and $48k in draws as per that 60/40 someone mentioned before?

This would save: .029 Medicare FICA x 48,000 + .124 Social Security FICA x 48,000 = $7,344! This correct? Thanks.

Morrow (talk|edits) said:

23 October 2007
errrr, i suppose it'd be .124 x $48k = $5,952

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

October 23, 2007
NO!!!!!! Read up on this dangit. I'm am growing very weary. Reasonable salary means just that, what would it cost to hire someone to do your job? The non-owner job? Go to payscale.com or salary.com and look it up for your area and job description. If it costs 120k, then that's the salary. Salary has nothing to do with some mythical split some goofball dreamed up. And unless you work for SS or IRS, the SS ceiling has nothing to do with it.

Morrow (talk|edits) said:

23 October 2007
Maybe the FICA goes like this: (120k - 97500) x .124 + .0145 x 120k employee + .0145 x $72k employer?

Morrow (talk|edits) said:

24 October 2007
Isn't there a benfit from splitting up an income through a disbursement? I'm trying to put a finger on it.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

October 24, 2007
Of course, but I didn't think we were done with the first tutorial on reasonable salary....Image:smile.jpgTo the extent that profits exceed the reasonable salary, and can then be taken as distributions instead of salary, then your savings is the full FICA up to the ceiling, and 2.9% after that. But you have to have reasonable salary.

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

24 October 2007
JR is trying to say, "Magic formulas don't hold substance." If the average IT consultant earns 90,000 a year, and your IT S Corp profits 100,000, you can have problems is you allocate 60K to salary. If the average surgeon earnes 300K as an employee, your's best make somewhere near that. I would add, however, that you might look at the total package, so that if Mr. IT Inc profits 100%, having salary of 80K and pension contribution of 20K would suffice.

VEXED (talk|edits) said:

26 October 2007
Hi, Would someone be kind enough to explain whether using the 1099 route [vs Salaries, payroll taxes, quarterly reporting, etc.] is acceptable/legal from an IRS standpoint? It's an LLC having made an S-CORP election for taxes, with 2 Members/shareholders. Can BOTH Members/Shareholders file as 1099 Contractors, or should we treat distributions/payments out of the SCORP as Salary? Grateful for your replies!

TheTinCook (talk|edits) said:

26 October 2007
You only need to ask the question once.

W2 or 1099 for S Corp Shareholder

Anyway:

"Can BOTH Members/Shareholders file as 1099 Contractors"

With few exceptions, no they can not.

" should we treat distributions/payments out of the SCORP as Salary?"

It depends on what the meaning of reasonable compensation is.

WesR (talk|edits) said:

26 October 2007
Hi I think you should start this question over :) bye

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

26 October 2007
You can say that again, Wes!

btw, I think we will be responding on this thread if this board is still alive in the year 2010.

WIBadgerCPA (talk|edits) said:

26 October 2007
Its not as easy as saying what would you pay someone else to do this job or go to payscale. Each case will have a different answer. If I'm a doctor with no employees or capital purchases, and I make $400,000 based on just my services and services alone, the $400,000 is my reasonable salary. But if I'm a doctor and make $400,000, but have 12 employees and I've bought all kinds of expensive machinery, I should be able to expect some type of return on my employees and equipment. Not all of my income is salary, but some is a return of capital invested in employees and equipment. Maybe now $300,000 is reasonable and $100,000 is income I can distribute. There is no standard amount, but it depends on a case by case situation. Granted, Payscale can help, but it isn't the answer for everyone.

WIBadgerCPA (talk|edits) said:

26 October 2007
Its not as easy as saying what would you pay someone else to do this job or go to payscale. Each case will have a different answer. If I'm a doctor with no employees or capital purchases, and I make $400,000 based on just my services and services alone, the $400,000 is my reasonable salary. But if I'm a doctor and make $400,000, but have 12 employees and I've bought all kinds of expensive machinery, I should be able to expect some type of return on my employees and equipment. Not all of my income is salary, but some is a return of capital invested in employees and equipment. Maybe now $300,000 is reasonable and $100,000 is income I can distribute. There is no standard amount, but it depends on a case by case situation. Granted, Payscale can help, but it isn't the answer for everyone.

VEXED (talk|edits) said:

26 October 2007
Thanks for the responses. I assume now that using the 1099 route to compensate myself is not the right way to go, as opposed to the Salary-and-Payroll taxes/filings no-option method!

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

October 26, 2007
And you only need to say that once, WI, but this Pack fan couldn't disagree more. Even if you're a solo doc, the question is, what would it cost to hire someone to do your job? Now, if the answer is the same, we're in agreement. In my practice, I'm the only one here except for my various personality splits. BUT, truth be told, I work very parttime. I could hire someone easily to do the work for 50k or less. Much of it's mere bookkeeping. Parttime. No credentials required. So you have to look at every situation. But to say that just because you're solo and earning x it should all be subject to SE tax is mere agreement with the new tax proposal, and flies in the face of reasonable comp case law.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

October 26, 2007
And yes, Vexed, proper payroll reporting is required. This late in the year, when filing a previous year return, IRS won't argue reporting as if on a 1099, presuming you move to PR in the current year.

VEXED (talk|edits) said:

26 October 2007
Thanks, JR1. Mine is a different case -employee on W2 until mid-Oct-07; LLC with SCORP election as independent contractor/consultant thereafter. Looks like this may add some complexity here!

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

October 26, 2007
A late in the year inc'ing or election to be an inc. doesn't necessarily create a payroll requirement in my mind...but in 08 it does. Others might disagree. Oh, heck, lots of folks here. Surely others would disagree! Get in the hands of a pro so that you don't stub your toe. Or fall down.

TheTinCook (talk|edits) said:

26 October 2007
I'll disagree with you, it sort of sounds like cherry picking rules otherwise. Where I get murky is fixing last years mistakes. On a side note, I noticed that the IRS draft forms department is working on an 941x project, which may clear things up. My audit/representation instructer claims that the IRS is gearing up to do lots of reasonable compensation audits. So the IRS may no longer turn a blind eye to all the little chunks of FUTA and Medicare that have been left on the table.


As for VEXED: It sounds to me that he left his job(employee non-owner) and struck out on his own. Need more facts.

Blrgcpa (talk|edits) said:

26 October 2007
Vexed: If you choose to be taxed as an s corp. You must be on p/r, NOT 1099. You are incorrect to think that you can get a 1099 as the owner of the s corp. You must have a p/r with all required taxes paid! An LLC is a disregarded entity.
You can choose to be taxed as a partnership, in which case you will get a guaranteed payment  and you will be responsible for all your p/r taxes.

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

26 October 2007
I agree with TC, start it right from the start. Too many people begin with good intentions and then find three or four years down the road they are still taking 1099s or worse.

Someday I will catalogue all the "IRS is getting ready to audit....." stories. Three or four years ago it was autos donated to charity for one, and see what happened? Both IRS and Congress changed the rules! This is often what happens; IRS promises more enforcement and Congress gives them tools. See JR's comments on Rangel's Tax Bill on another thread.

Bk (talk|edits) said:

29 October 2007
Hi guys, and thank you in advance for helping me.

I have an S-Corp with 3 partners. Two of us work run the business full-time, while the 3rd is a 25% shareholder. He is basically an investor, or silent partner.

My problem is this:

All year, we have been unable to take salary because our business is new and we had a cashflow problem up to this point. Now, we are able to finally pay ourselves something, but I don't want to pay ourselves salary and have the payroll taxes taken out. My thinking is that our losses will be so great at the end of the year, that there must be a way to not have to pay the payroll taxes now.

Normally if we were equal partners, we could each take a dsitribution. The complication arises with the 3rd partner at 25%, and the other two at 37.5% each.

Is it possible to take a distribution and pay the two fulltime partners now, but not reduce our year end distribution? The two fulltime partners should be compensated for their day-to-day work, as was the reason for the salary in the first place. But to this point, was not payable due to cashflow reasons.

Am I making any sense? At all? ;-)

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

October 29, 2007
What does your accountant say?

And no, you're not making complete sense because on one hand you talk about taking salaries, then that there'd be losses at year end, then about distributions. Where there are losses, there cannot be distributions. Whatever you do, if you take money out, you must pay reasonable salaries. If you don't want that, you're in the wrong kind of entity. After you pay salaries, whatever profit remains is split in accord with the ownership. Usually, folks working in the biz WANT a salary so that they're not compensating a silent partner for work that he didn't do. If you're scenario is a net loss, you could forego your salaries until next year, splitting up the loss by %, or you can go ahead and do salaries, and yes, the payroll taxes, increasing the loss which is then split. That loss would offset your income taxes, but not SS taxes.

Consult your accountant. Tricky choices.

Jdugancpa (talk|edits) said:

29 October 2007
"I don't want to pay ourselves salary and have the payroll taxes taken out."

Life is not fair. Compensation for services is wages. Compensation for ownership is distribution of profit. Tough thing that you have to pay payroll taxes, but that is life. Distributions get paid out of profits earned from the business, after reasonable wages have been paid to shareholder-employees.

Jdugancpa (talk|edits) said:

30 October 2007
Before adding more questions to this thread because you think yours is so special and unusual that it has not been addressed in this forum before, do you hereby promise, swear and assert that you have read and fully understand the following discussions that also address this issue:

S Corp Salary on Amended Return: http://www.taxalmanac.org/index.php/Discussion:S_Corp_Salary_On_Amended_Return

S-Corp 2% Shareholder-Employee "Reasonable Salary": http://www.taxalmanac.org/index.php/Discussion:S-Corp_2%25_Shareholder-Employee_%22Reasonable_Salary%22

S CORP OFFICER SALARY: http://www.taxalmanac.org/index.php/Discussion:S_CORP_OFFICER_SALARY

S-Corp (Salary pd to oneself): http://www.taxalmanac.org/index.php/Discussion:S-Corp_%28Salary_pd_to_oneself%29

S- corp with no payroll, salary or distributions: http://www.taxalmanac.org/index.php/Discussion:S-_corp_with_no_payroll%2C_salary_or_distributions

S Corp Officer did NOT take salary - big trouble? payroll?: http://www.taxalmanac.org/index.php/Discussion:S_Corp_Officer_did_NOT_take_salary_-_big_trouble%3F_payroll%3F

S Corp - loan repayment or payroll salary: http://www.taxalmanac.org/index.php/Discussion:S_Corp_-_loan_repayment_or_payroll_salary

S-Corp Owner Reasonable Salary payroll: http://www.taxalmanac.org/index.php/Discussion:S-Corp_Owner_Reasonable_Salary_payroll

S-Corp salary/draw or payroll: http://www.taxalmanac.org/index.php/Discussion:S-Corp_salary/draw_or_payroll

S-corp with no salary or payroll to sole shareholder: http://www.taxalmanac.org/index.php/Discussion:S-corp_with_no_salary_or_payroll_to_sole_shareholder

S-Corp that didn't pay payroll salary to officers: http://www.taxalmanac.org/index.php/Discussion:S-Corp_that_didn%27t_pay_payroll_salary_to_officers

S-CORP PAYROLL and salary: http://www.taxalmanac.org/index.php/Discussion:S-CORP_PAYROLL_and_salary

Business startup corp or llc? S Corp salary: http://www.taxalmanac.org/index.php/Discussion:Business_startup_corp_or_llc%3F_S_Corp_salary

SWEEET S Corp salary payroll compensation again: http://www.taxalmanac.org/index.php/Discussion:SWEEET_S_Corp_salary_payroll_compensation_again

S-Corp no salary or payroll during year: http://www.taxalmanac.org/index.php/Discussion:S-Corp_no_salary_or_payroll_during_year

The proverbial S Corp Distributions VS Salary: http://www.taxalmanac.org/index.php/Discussion:The_proverbial_S_Corp_Distributions_VS_Salary

S-Corp-Salary: file a (very) late 941 or issue a 1099?: http://www.taxalmanac.org/index.php/Discussion:S-Corp-Salary:_file_a_%28very%29_late_941_or_issue_a_1099%3F

S-Corp distribution vs payroll or salary: http://www.taxalmanac.org/index.php/Discussion:S-Corp_distribution_vs_payroll_or_salary

I am certain that a search using other terms than "salary s corp" would bring more hits. So do your homework before asking another question. And, better yet, after your homework is done and you still have a question, start a new thread rather than tacking it onto this one.

EATaxPro (talk|edits) said:

30 October 2007
I believe the IRS' new policy is to appropriate ALL profits as subject to FICA and Medicare, starting the 2007 year. I have not started my review of the rules yet, but remember hearing that stated directly in May of this year.

As such, all distributions will be appropriated to the %owners and subject to social security taxes. It is one of the new methods the IRS has adopted to collect more money for the government.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

October 30, 2007
EA, c'mon, stop rumor mongering. NOT TRUE! What is true is that the new tax bill proposal contains such a provision. IRS cannot have a policy that flies in the face of tax law as determined by the courts. Do read more.

Gosix (talk|edits) said:

30 October 2007
<stop rumor mongering. NOT TRUE! What is true is that the new tax bill proposal contains such a provision. IRS cannot have a policy that flies in the face of tax law as determined by the courts. Do read more. >

All I know is this is going to suck to have to explain it to the clients, if and when it does happen.

Dfkfinsvcs (talk|edits) said:

28 November 2007
I made my wife 75% shareholder of the S corp. She is not involved in the corporation at all, I do all the work and am 25% shareholder along with drawing a $30,000 salary as President.

Corp is going to show about $40k in distributions after expenses ($10,000 to me & $30,000 to her on the corp K-1).

I was hoping to absorb her distribution with some real estate passive losses, but I have heard that husband & wife both have to be material participants if one is.

Thoughts ?

TheTinCook (talk|edits) said:

28 November 2007
Yup, spousal participation is counted. Reg. 1.469-5T(f)(3)

Johnhuddleston (talk|edits) said:

28 November 2007
I posed nearly the exact question to Mark Pierce, S Corporation Technical Advisor for the IRS, at a CPE on Nov 1. My sense of his answer is that the hus/wife split can help your case but it's still a reasonableness issue. Your split may work but giving you a 1% interest, your wife 99% interest and paying yourself $5k would not fly. They could still recategorize the wife's distribution. He also said look at where the profit comes from (you, capital or employees). If it's you, he says it's all salary. He also said they will not likely be concerned if salary is equal to the wage base.

John Huddleston Seattle Bellevue Tax Accountant

Irsfixer (talk|edits) said:

4 December 2007
What do you think about a strategy of a large bonus every year to the owner that is loaned back at current interest rates? Each year, the interest is paid and the note rolled and a new note is added for the current year. Over time a large amount of potential compensation is converted to interest and repayments are of course tax free down the line.

Johnhuddleston (talk|edits) said:

4 December 2007
I think the IRS would respect that transaction, if all ts are crossed. You are accelerating your SE tax however. A $50,000 bonus this year will increase your SE tax by about $7600 this year, if under the wage base. If interest is 10%, then the note can be increased to $55,000 in year 2. It will take several years before the interest income is sufficient to replace your salary.

It makes more sense if you go over the wage base. I'm concerned that it would pencil out in the end however. Salary does need to be reasonable at both ends. For a company that has before salary profit of $100,000 every year, a $1,000,000 bonus gets you to the point in one year where interest could be used to distribute all profit (assuming 10% interest). You would pay $29,000 extra SE tax in year one. After that, you would only have interest income ($100,000 per year). The problem is that the $1,000,000 salary would not be reasonable in that scenario.

John Huddleston Seattle Bellevue Tax Accountant

Bottom Line (talk|edits) said:

5 December 2007
Could this be considered avoidance of tax? The reason this is being done is to avoid tax.

Irsfixer (talk|edits) said:

5 December 2007
It is clearly tax avoidance. Our entire profession is build on the concept.

“Anyone may arrange his affairs so that his taxes shall be as low as possible; he is not bound to choose that pattern which best pays the Treasury. There is not even a patriotic duty to increase one’s taxes. Over and over again the Courts have said that there is nothing sinister in so arranging affairs as to keep taxes as low as possible. Everyone does it, rich and poor alike and all do right, for nobody owes any public duty to pay more than the law demands.” — Judge Learned Hand, writing for the 2nd Circuit Court of Appeals in Helvering v. Gregory , 69 F.2d 809 (1934)

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

5 December 2007
I've always thought that taxes can be divided into two schools: the Learned Hand vs the Potter Stewart (I can't define pornography but I know it when I see it....substitute tax avoidance for pornography)

Irsfixer (talk|edits) said:

5 December 2007
Tax avoidance is good. Tax evasion is bad. It is the difference that Potter Stewart could have been referring to.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

December 5, 2007
I do like it. My reservation is that years later, when the profits are extinguished by heavy interest, presumably without much principal repayment, that it will look at that point as something evasive. The owner would be taking hundreds of thousands, let's say, but pay no SS/SE tax and show no profit. While the route to get there was legit, a judge would look at that and cry 'unfair' and legal or not, I expect that that would be that and it would go into the flames. But I do like it! The trick might be to not get too carried away, keeping an eye on some reasonable salary all along, even if on the low end due to lack of profits.

Irsfixer (talk|edits) said:

5 December 2007
I see it more like a ten year strategy for retirement. In ten years the client will have limited activity in the business but have large income essentially from capital reinvested in the business. Eventually, she could take out chunks of principal or sell the company and avoid capital gains to the extent of the note.

Johnhuddleston (talk|edits) said:

5 December 2007
We don't really need to define tax avoidance since it is legal and ethical (except for some specific code sections). It's tax evasion and negligence that we need to worry about.

John Huddleston Seattle Bellevue Tax Accountant

CPA1040 (talk|edits) said:

5 December 2007
Somewhat new question relating to salary vs distribution:

If a taxpayer takes the position of not taking all net income as salary in order to avoid SE tax, would it benefit that position in the eyes of the IRS if the taxpayer left the additional cash in the S Corp instead of taking a distribution? Say there is a taxpayer who doesn't need all the cash generated by his S Corp (owned solely by him), and he would like to invest the excess cash. Can he just leave the excess in the S Corp and have the S Corp invest it? Is there any rule about having more than one business purpose - i.e. both a trade and holding investments (S Corp was never a C Corp, so there is no E&P to cause tax on >25% passive income)? Could an S Corp which has a primary trade/business also purchase real estate as an investment?

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

5 December 2007
As soon as you say "in order to avoid SE tax," you've dug yourself a hole, more than likely even if the salary were reasonable. Why doesn't he invest it in a self-directed pension plan, which on top of the salary, might take the balance of the distributable income out in his favor?

Jdugancpa (talk|edits) said:

5 December 2007
Call me stupid, but how is this going to work? An unnamed tax guy opens his new S corp with $1000 put into his checking account. He earns $100k (substitute your own number here) before owner comp. Pays himself $90k, loans back $50K to the corp, goes home, tells wife, "Sorry, honey, we can't take the kids on vaction this year, I had to loan the corp some money. By the way, I think you need to go out and get a part time job until the corp can afford to repay this loan. " "Okay," says Sally, somewhat disappointed, but optimistic about next year. Next year comes, guy earns $120k, pays himself $105k salary, plus $5k interest, loans back $60k to corp. "Sorry, honey, can't do Christmas presents this year, I had to loan the corp money again. Do you think you can up your hours abit this next year? But, hey, this corp seems like a solid investment; I just received my interest check from last year's loan. And not only that, I didn't have to pay FICA taxes on the interest payment." On and on it goes.

Yeah, right. Won't work. If the corp has need for capital, leave it in the corp, pay the income tax (but no SE tax) to grow capital. Down the road, when it is time to sell or liquidate, take a modest bonus and pay the rest out as a tax free distribution of AAA.

Irsfixer (talk|edits) said:

5 December 2007
Making up facts such as loaning ALL the money back so you can't go on vacation and the wife must take a job is silly and does not make a point.

Jdugancpa (talk|edits) said:

5 December 2007
I didn't loan ALL the money back, I loaned slightly over half the amount back. I paid interest at 10%. And, yes, "Illustrating absurdity by being absurd" does make a point in that it shows the logical extension of the discussion at hand. The point is, if the corp has a need to grow capital, an S corp already provides a means of doing that. Grow the capital by leaving the money in the S corp. Don't take the earnings out as salary, pay FICA tax and then loan it back. It makes no sense.

Irsfixer (talk|edits) said:

5 December 2007
Would you rather go into a discussion with an IRS examiner about salary versus distributions with $1,000,000 of undistributed earnings or $1,000,000 in debt?

Jdugancpa (talk|edits) said:

5 December 2007
Last I checked, there won't be any discussions with an IRS examiner about treatment of distributions as wages if the distributions were never paid. If the corp has a reason to accumulate earnings in order to finance growth or expansion I would be happy to talk to the agent about the undistributed earnings. If the corp has no reason to accumulate the earnings, then the person would have been foolish to pay them out as salary and pay FICA taxes on the wages and then loan them back to the corp. If the corp has no reason to accumulate earnings there are undoubtably better places to invest the cash. So we're still back to payment of a reasonable wage and taking the extra as S distributions avoiding the FICA on that portion. Let's not overthink this.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

December 5, 2007
CPA1040, in my opinion, if the money is NOT taken, I cannot see how IRS has an argument for assessing it for payroll. I have semi-retired clients who, amazingly enough, NEVER taken a dime out of the corp. So I've not worried about payroll. Yet. Now, they can't have their cake and eat it, too, so when they do stop the biz and then start sucking the cash out, I don't think it's fair to then merely call it profit distributions, either. When I get to that day, I'll wrestle thru it. But deferred salaries might be just that, deferred. If you read some of the reasonable comp cases, usually for C corps, much of the basis for heavy salaries later is the deferred salaries when the corp was new. The same thing should apply in the S world, to be fair.

CPA1040 (talk|edits) said:

6 December 2007
Jdungancpa, I'm not sure if your scenario was in answer to my question, but if it was, I think you misread my question. I was never suggesting to take a salary of all the net earnings and then loan them back to the the corporation. Maybe adding numbers to my scenario will make it clearer. Say the corporation nets $200,000 before salary. The owner can comfortably live (and take vacations) on $100,000. Can he take salary of $100,000 and not touch the other $100,000. Actually JR1 already answered my question about how the IRS might view that. The other question is: say the S Corporation is a service corporation like a legal practice. Could the S Corporation invest in property, other companies, etc, even though that isn't it's business purpose?

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

December 6, 2007
Pretty restricted there, since you NEVER EVER EVER NO NOT EVER want RE inside a corp. And an S can't own other corps, right? Well, maybe C's...? And LLC's...

Jdugancpa (talk|edits) said:

7 December 2007
CPA1040, my response was not to your question. I think JR & I are in agreement (though I do not want to put words into JR's "Reply to this discussion" box) that distributions not taken will not be reclassified by the IRS as wages. The answer to your question is, yes, you can do what you have suggested, but to quote JR: "you NEVER EVER EVER NO NOT EVER want RE inside a corp." You're much better off taking a reasonable wage and then taking the S distribution for the rest and doing the investing outside of the S corp. Remember, once you're wage is above the SS limit ($97k for 2007), you're only arguing about Medicare at 2.9%. So take your pick. Pay the wage and be certain the IRS won't make an issue of it or pay the extra $100k as S distribution being relatively but not absolutely certain it won't become an issue.

Johnhuddleston (talk|edits) said:

7 December 2007
I believe an S Corp can own anything but an S Corp.

John Huddleston Seattle Bellevue Tax Accountant

Johnhuddleston (talk|edits) said:

7 December 2007
An S Corporation can invest in property, (although it may not be the best place for it). You can have more than one purpose. I don't believe you have any holding company issues with S Corps since it's a flow through.

John Huddleston Seattle Bellevue Tax Accountant

Isabel777 (talk|edits) said:

3 January 2008
I have a couple of questions:

My partner and I each have 50% share of ownership in a s-corp. I do not want to pay payroll taxes he does. Is it possible for me to sell my shares to a LLC to avoid the payroll taxes? Or do we have to convert the s-corp as a whole to receive the benefit of not paying the payroll taxes?

DZCPA (talk|edits) said:

3 January 2008
No payroll = No payroll taxes. Did you lose money last year?

Aunt Emmy (talk|edits) said:

3 January 2008
Isabel honey you either gonna pay payroll taxes on some of your scorp income or self employment tax on all of your LLC income. Now git out that checkbook and ante up like the rest of us do.

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

3 January 2008
I am only posting to be #200 on the back of this dragon, but suffice to say, Isabel, that your Aunt Emmy makes good sense. In fact as a S Corp, reasonable salary might not equal profit, but in a LLC it probably will, unless you want to go find that fabulous discussion about bifurcating LLC income.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

January 3, 2008
Consider the ministry Izzy, it's your only out.

Cat123 (talk|edits) said:

10 January 2008
I have read this entire thread. I own my own S Corp (sole owner, sole employee). I grossed $ 200,000 this year. The corporate bank account has a current balance of $ 150,000. I'd like to clear it out, leaving approx $ 10,000 to cover future expenses while awaiting additional income. That amount should be sufficient. I've paid myself a salary of $ 50,000 per year since I started the company 5 years ago (my accountant came up with that figure). I work constantly to keep this business going...minimally 5 days a week, approx 10-12 hours per day, and several hours each weekend as well, plus I'm on call 24/7. Would it seem appropriate to pay myself this year a salary of $ 90,000 and a distribution of $ 50,000 in order to reduce the corporate bank account down to $ 10,000, or would such a jump from a $ 50,000 to a $ 90,000 salary be a "no no" in the eyes of the IRS? I feel the salary is justified based on the hours I put in and the speciality of the work I perform. The problem is it would be very difficult to ascertain what others earn as a compariable salary in this line of work (I run an adoption company). Also, if one years profit is not as great as another years profit, is it okay with the IRS to reduce down my salary or increase my salary accordingly? The income from this line of work can vary greatly year to year.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

January 10, 2008
Good for you reading all this, Cat! Did you start in Oct. to get it all in? Your salary should be defined by what you do, along with all the hours and so forth. Professionals do earn more than non. So what do you do? Check those www.salary.com or www.payscale.com sites for comparison. Take no more salary than you should. Perhaps you should be on the higher end of the range...but going up unnecessarily merely costs you money. So redetermine your reasonable salary, set it and forget it. Take the rest as profits and don't look back. Do understand this: Once you take your salary up, it's hard to justify bringing it back down again.

Cat123 (talk|edits) said:

10 January 2008
Thanks JR1 for the quick reply. I'll check those websites for comparisons, but based on the work I do I'm doubting there will be much there because my work is so specialized. (I do adoption work where pregnant women call me and I find adoptive families for them and then walk both through the adoption process.) Say I increase my salary to $ 75,000. Would a jump from $ 50,000 to $ 75,000 raise any red flags? I believe the salary could be justified, but who needs an audit? Also, from reading the thread above, I realize the 60/40 is not a rule, but more of a suggestion for cautious tax payers, which I am. To clear out my S Corp bank account for year's end '07, this means if I paid myself a salary of $ 75,000 my distribution would then be

$ 58,000 after allocating $ 5,000 to retirement (I'm not contributing more because I'm saving to buy a house) and leaving $ 10,000 remaining in the S Corp bank account to cover monthly expenses. Would paying myself a $ 75,000 salary and a $ 58,000 distribution potentially cause issues with the IRS given the salary amount is fairly close to the distribution amount? What do people do in my position who are sole owners of S Corps, sole employees, want to clear out the S Corp bank account at year's end (leaving enough in the account to pay upcoming expenses) but to do so they'll need to give themselves a distribution that is close to, equal to or even higher than one's salary? I feel like I'm in a catch 22. Also, does the IRS frown on S Corp sole owners clearing out the S Corp bank account at year's end or do they prefer this? Obviously, I don't want to leave funds in the S Corp account that doesn't need to be there in order to keep the business running. I'd rather those funds be moved into my personal accounts, but this means my distribution is going to be high.

Joanmcq (talk|edits) said:

10 January 2008
I'm a bit confused as to whether the large distribution this year is due to 5 years of accumulated earnings or one year? If 5 years, it would not be that big of a flag because it is years worth of profits, not one year's and one could not say you were avoiding payroll taxes to take a distribution. If you are looking at taking distributions larger than salary as an ongoing thing, I would say that it could be a flag and whether $50,000 was reasonable in light of the hours and effort you put into the company.

Jdugancpa (talk|edits) said:

10 January 2008
Cat, the IRS would love for you to take all of the earnings out in the form of wages. Jumping from $50k to $75k will not cause you to be audited. What MIGHT cause an increase in your audit chance is the fact that the S corp tax return reports high S distributions relative to wages paid to officer. While JR and others are correct that the ratio does not matter, that really relates to defending yourself against the argument of unreasonably low wages. The ration must matter with regard to audit selection, however. If an auditor looks at the corporate return and sees a high salary/distrib ratio, the likelihood he would select it for examination for that reason must surely be less than if the salary/distrib ratio is low.

JR's last point is that once you have raised your wages to $75k, arguing that a lower amount is reasonable becomes problematic. If last year you worked for $75k and figured it was reasonable, why is a lesser amount reasonable this year?

Ultimately, if the IRS is going to chase S corps paying low wages, there are worse offenders out there than you who paid yourself $75k. So IMHO $75k wage, $58k distrib is not likely to significantly increase your audit chances. And, if the argument does get raised, Joan's point is relevant (if she and I are interpreting your post correctly) that the distribution you are contemplating taking for 2008 is the first one you've taken in five years, so naturally there is an accumulation all coming out in one year.

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

10 January 2008
Cat: you might read the interesting topic Discussion: S Corp Audit - Wages and Auto Expense for some idea of the potential problems, though that situation is vastly different. The other thought here is that it sounds as if you have a service business with significant expense, but not a lot of capital invested. IRS does tend to look at those with a more jaundiced view in that there is little capital to earn a return upon.

At some point you might think about taking earnings above your salary out into a corporate deductible pension, like a SEP. On a 50,000 salary, $12,500 could be contributed and deducted by your corporation for a SEP contribution.

Rgtaxservice (talk|edits) said:

10 January 2008
This may be a alittle off topic, but it's relevant and it's something I've thought about.

If a sole owner provides a service, how can a reasonable salary be anything other that what the sole owner (S-Corp) netted? Just as if he were a Sole Prop instead of an S-Corp. How can the reasonable compensation be different for a service provider just because of the entity choice. If consultant makes 200K net, that's what he makes. How can you say that he provided 200K of service, yet the salary is only 75K and the rest is corporate profit when he is the corporation. The corporate product is the owner's knowledge in the service it provides. Revenue would be a direct function of his participation.

I can see how reasonable compensation would make sense for a sole owner (S-Corp) that instead sells a product. His product is widgets. If he profits 200K from selling widgets, I can see a 75K salary and a 125K distribution. The corporate product is the widget. Revenue from sales would not be a direct function of the owner's participation in the same respect.

Cat123 (talk|edits) said:

10 January 2008
The large distribution would be for one year...not an accumulation. This is where I feel like I'm in a catch 22 and not sure how to proceed. My profits tend to be $ 150,000 to $ 250,000 yearly. I understand my salary needs to be considered "reasonable...what one would pay others to do the same job." Paying myself a "reasonable" salary of $ 75,000 is going to leave a large excess of profit still remaining in the company's S Corp bank account. I want to clear out that excess profit when it's unnecessary to keep it in the S Corp's bank account in order to keep the company running. If I pay myself a higher salary, the IRS could claim it's not a "reasonable" salary. If I pay myself a distribution that is close to, equal to or greater than my salary, then the IRS could say I'm tax evading. How then, do I clear out the S Corp bank account profits at year's end when I'm limited to a "reasonable" salary? I'm assuming clearing out the S Corp's bank account leaving an appropriate amount of profits to cover future expenses is legal and appropriate?

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

January 10, 2008
Because he's not a sole prop, that's why. The rules are different. For a sole prop, by definition, all income is subject to SE. For corps, it's determined by the salary. There is nothing nowhere that says salaries must equal the profit! So I can say that that consultant shouldn't have a 200k salary if it would cost only 75k to hire someone to do his job. If that's the case, you canNOT make a case that his salary should be HIGHER just because he's providing services. Whether selling services or selling products, a salary is a salary, and whatever is reasonable is what it should be. Since when is it improper in a capitalist nation to earn a profit? Even an obscene one?

And Cat, Jdugan as usual summed up my thoughts rather well.

Rgtaxservice (talk|edits) said:

10 January 2008
That's just my point. A 200K Sole Prop gets whacked for SE for the whole boat (less limits). The 200K sole owner of the S Corp pays himself 75K and gets the rest as a distribution.

It's just the fact that it's one guy making the money based on his services. It just doesn't make sense.

If it were a S Corp owner with a consulting firm and several employees that netted 200K, I can see his reasonable salary and the distributions. His distribution is the result of the sweat and toil of others. Now that's the capitilist way :)

I understand that the rules are different.

I just broke my one golden rule - "Know the rules, but do not ask yourself why or try to make sense of them". It should a commandment somewhere. I was trying to make sense of the tax code.

Belle (talk|edits) said:

10 January 2008
Cat123 - I think you are missing a key point in this can of worms regarding 'reasonable salary'.

With a C corp, a salary can be deemed unreasonable if it is too high (in the eyes of the IRS). This is because the IRS wants the excess taken from a C corp as DIVIDENDS (not distributions); dividends are not deductible by the C corp, yet taxable to the individual - thus the double layer of taxation you may have heard about....

With an S corp, the IRS wants a 'reasonable' salary strictly to get payroll taxes (Social Security and Medicare cash flow into a failing system). I've never heard of the IRS determining that a salary in an S corp situation is TOO high (anyone else ever heard of it happening). Your personal income tax liability isn't changed by your S corp salary vs distribution (disregarding the impact of the payroll taxes paid by the S are deductible).

Hope I'm interpreting your questions correctly and that this helps.

Cat123 (talk|edits) said:

10 January 2008
Jdugancpa, to clarify the distribution I would be taking is not an accumulation of years past with no distributions even taken prior. It's just reflective of one year's distribution for one year of profits.

Death&Taxes, it is a service business with significant expenses and very limited capital invested. I'm not in a position to take a nice chunk of earnings and allocate them towards a retirement fund because I'm in the process of buying a house and need as much personal income as I can.

Belle, understood. My concern is if my “reasonable” salary is $ 75,000, then to essentially clear out my S Corp bank account this would mean my distribution would be close to, equal to or perhaps higher than my salary (which the IRS doesn’t seem to like), and not being in a position to put funds into an SEP. Thus, I feel stuck in a position where my distribution is going to be on the high side over and above salary in most years and that’s what the IRS doesn’t like, but I don’t see any solution to it other than contribute to a SEP (not an option currently), so then that’s my quandary.

Any further suggestions/concerns per my posting directly above (my second posting of the day)?

Belle (talk|edits) said:

10 January 2008
Your only real exposure is the difference between the salary you set, and the Social Security limit for the year (2007 was $ 94800, I think)...oops, I guess there's still minimal exposure for medicare, as it has no limit. As JR pointed out, once you go up in salary, it's difficult to go back down to a lower figure in future years assuming gross/net income stays about the same.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

January 10, 2008
Don't worry about distribution being higher. That's ok. This is America, where profits are allowed! I'd stick with 75k based on what you've posted, and not look back.

Belle (talk|edits) said:

10 January 2008
ditto

Murrsg07 (talk|edits) said:

2008-01-10
I do adoption work where pregnant women call me and I find adoptive families for them and then walk both through the adoption process.)

I'm surprised to read how much can someone make from this type of solo enterprise....

Cat123 (talk|edits) said:

10 January 2008
Yeap. But, trust me, I work 24/7. No vacations. No days off. I don't even know the concept of a work day ending at 5:00 PM. This is really hard work if you are truly dedicated to it and doing it right. You're never off the clock and the work is never ending. Tons of pressure too. Not an easy line of work, but emotionally very rewarding as you help people in crisis in time of need. That's a great feeling. It also took me 19 years to get where I'm at, plus college and graduate school in counseling.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

January 10, 2008
Let me just say thanks and God bless you for doing what you do. You matter, and you make a difference in our world. Seriously.

Belle (talk|edits) said:

January 10, 2008
ditto 2 - I have never understood why folks who would be GREAT parents can't conceive, yet teenagers who don't have the resources(economic, emotional, education, etc)to be parents can reproduce like the proverbial rabbits. Good to have your kind around to match up the two scenarios....for the betterment of all.

Joanmcq (talk|edits) said:

11 January 2008
Two ways I beg to differ. One is that when Cat stresses the amount of hours and effort that she puts into the business. So, if you figure a 70 hour work week and no time off, even a $75,000 salary only breaks down to $20.60 an hour, which isn't much.

Second, if you are trying to up your income to buy a house, I'm assuming you are trying to qualify for the mortgage, in which case the higher the salary, the better off you are. Unless the stress towards buying the house only pertains to having cash on hand rather than what income is going to show on the application.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

January 11, 2008
Sorry, Joan, but we part here. Income is income for mortgage qualifications. They'll want the last two years corp returns, and the oh, so famous letter from us. As to the hours, that merely justifies her being at the higher end of the range. Managers/owners don't get paid OT. The fact that she works more than many AS HER CHOICE doesn't mean she should be comped for it.

Belle (talk|edits) said:

January 11, 2008
I have had cases where the lender INSISTED on documentation of the distributions from the 100% shareholder of an S corp, rather than using the K-1 or even the 1120S. Many times I've wanted to talk directly to the underwriters for a quick lesson on tax returns. Maybe it's just a Calif. thing

Either way, Cat s/b fine.

Joanmcq (talk|edits) said:

11 January 2008
I know managers don't get OT. I don't get OT. But I won't work for $20 an hour!

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

January 11, 2008
She will. Don't confuse the two! Image:smile.jpg

Cat123 (talk|edits) said:

12 January 2008
JR1, I'm filling out my end of year payroll...forms 940 and 941, etc. (I only pay myself once at the end of the year) and was planning to go with the 75K figure referenced above in order to minimize my distribution. You mentioned in your post to me on Jan 10th it's hard to go down in salary in a subsequent year. My concern is what happens if I don't make enough in the way of profits to meet the 75K salary in subsequent years? This could happen. I looked back to year '06 and see my Net Operating Income was 11K approx. (Total income

$ 134,400/Total Expenses $ 123,500. Had I been paying myself a salary of 75K in '06, I wouldn't have made enough profits to meet that salary. Should my expenses run so high that I cannot meet the salary I set for myself this year (75K) in future years, what then? Thanks for you insight. I appreciate it!

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

January 13, 2008
Well, decreased profits are always a good reason to drop the salary! So that is the one legit way to do it, actually. Tho' we don't recommend it....Image:smile.jpg

Cat123 (talk|edits) said:

13 January 2008
Would it be okay if instead of decreasing salary in such a year alternatively I loaned money to the company (loan to shareholder) should the company's expenses be greater than the profit? Is that permissible and perhaps a more preferred way to handle such an occurance? Thanks JR1!

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

January 13, 2008
It's always permissible to loan money in. Is it preferred? Well, you have high salary then, with a loss. The income taxes are the same, but you overspent on SS taxes. If profits drop significantly, unless you're nearing retirement age and therefore wanting to throw money into the SS system in the hopes of a speedy return, it makes sense to perhaps reevaluate the salary level and drop it down until profits come back up. I do hope you've got an advisor to work with you on these things....?

Cat123 (talk|edits) said:

13 January 2008
Thanks JR1. My accountant isn't any help. She just takes my numbers and does her thing. No questions. No evaluation of my situation. No explanation as to different ways of approaching things and working together to decide how best to proceed. Ugh. That's why I'm reading these threads and forums. I've actually gained quite a bit of information and knowledge, which is great. I'm not going to attempt to do my annual tax returns (best left for an accountant to tackle), but in preparing my year end payroll (4th quarter) that's where I needed the advice. I do plan on making some calls based on referrals to local accountants for my annual tax returns, but just needed to figure out the annual salary issue first since I need to wrap up the year end payroll and get those taxes in by the 16th to avoid any penalties! Thank you again for your advice and insight. When I had read your response above that decreasing my salary if expenses exceeded profit was permissible, but not recommended, I thought I'd better clarify with you other alternatives I had should this occur. Since I'm not close to retirement, sounds like my best option would be to reduce salary and hope the IRS doesn't choose to audit me because my salary decreased. (I'd be okay, but who wants that!) If I'm not interpreting you correctly and you feel there's a better way to approach such a senario, please let me know. Once again, thank you so much for taking the time to reply. I do appreciate it.

Bottom Line (talk|edits) said:

13 January 2008
It drives me crazy when people say that their accountant doesn't explain things and doesn't help with planning. I believe that's one of our jobs!

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

January 13, 2008
Yeah, Cat, find another accountant who will do the job. A form filler can be had anywhere.

Belle (talk|edits) said:

January 13, 2008
CAT123 - I read your post of today 1/13/08. I'm curious why you think you have until 1/16/08 for your payroll tax deposit? If your last payck for 2007 is dated 12/31/07 - I think the due date for your deposit is 1/15/08....just a heads up.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

January 13, 2008
Maybe Tues is a holiday where she is!

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

13 January 2008
IRS will get one of those 'you are a first time offender, no penalty, but sin no more.'

Belle (talk|edits) said:

January 13, 2008
JR1 - can I go where she is? :-)

D&T - why take the chance, since she has two days to get it done? ($75000 X 153% X 10% =

      $ 11,475 minimum with no FIT w/h)

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

13 January 2008
I agree, but it is funny when you receive one. I just did for making my November deposit on 11/18.

Belle (talk|edits) said:

January 13, 2008
YOU were late....glad they gave it to you. I've requested (and received) on behalf of clients several times. I call it the "dumb and stupid" letter...

Shaunna (talk|edits) said:

13 January 2008
This has been the most entertaining post yet. And informative!

Atxnaeem (talk|edits) said:

15 January 2008
I have two questions about S Corp Salary

1) Currently, I am working full-time at a firm and get paid a fixed salary and I have created my own S Corp where I work about 5 hours a week. How much should I pay myself for the S-Corp? Let's say that my S Corp makes about 100,000/year and I work only 5 hours/week.

2) Also, must I pay employement taxes or should I pay myself a salary if the company has not made any revenue yet? The S Corp has only been established.

Jdugancpa (talk|edits) said:

15 January 2008
If you have not earned any revenue, paying yourself a salary would be very foolish. But on the other question, if the corp earns $100k prior to owner comp, what is the proper salary. The answer is, it depends. What does the corp do? What are you performing for 5 hrs per week? Are there (will there be) other employees? What will they do and what will they earn? How much capital has been put into the business? If you earn $100k based primarily upon services that you perform, most of the comp should come out as wages. (But wait until JR jumps in here with his argument).

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

15 January 2008
Is your current employment the same type of work as that done by your S Corp. If so, the salary you are paid now would be a good litmus test when reduced to an hourly basis, though I agree with JD about performing services.

Atxnaeem (talk|edits) said:

15 January 2008
Thanks for the reply. I will be involved in selling products abroad to a distributor, and I will be the only employee/person working at the company.

As for the second comment, I work in a different area - services. The purpose of the new venture is to only buy and sell products.

Atxnaeem (talk|edits) said:

15 January 2008
The capital required for the project will be around 50k or so

Rcmcfe (talk|edits) said:

16 January 2008
Hi all...I've just set up an S-Corp and have a few questions. Sorry in advance if this has been discussed or covered previously....

I've just set up an SCorp where I'm the sole shareholder and employee. My question in regards to the "distribution of profits".

I keep reading where a distribution is "nontaxable". I thought the distribution was taxed and your regular tax rate (less SS & Medicare)? Also, whats the difference between a distribution of profits from the Corp. to me and a "draw"? Finally, where is this reported? I know the salary is reported on a W2, but where is the distribution (and/or draw) reported...1099, W2 also??

Thanks.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

January 16, 2008
OK, first off, we're not your accountant. And you need one. So go find one....in the meantime, distributions technically aren't taxed at all, profits are. And yes, taxed for income tax only. Salary is subject to income and SS taxes. A draw and distribution are often used interchangeably, tho' many of us will book draws to a note account, or separate it in equity until year end when profits are closed to the equity. There's a K-1 which comes out of the corp tax return that reports your net profits and many separate items, and your distributions for the calculation of basis. It's not terribly complicated for us who do it all the time, but not a DIY deal...so good luck, find an accountant who understands this stuff. Not all do.

Rcmcfe (talk|edits) said:

16 January 2008
Right...I've got all that. I should have made my question less vague. My main issue was determining the difference between a "distribution of profits" v. a "draw" (for tax purposes). It would seem that you could just take regular tax free draws (keeping in mind your basis of course), and have a minimal profit @ the end of the year which would be taxable...

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

January 16, 2008
Generally, it's the earning, i.e. the profits, that get taxed. Distributions or draws have nothing to do with the profit. There are some exceptions, but that'll do for now. Think of it this way, the profit reporting is like a W2 at year end. The money is the checks you receive along the way. IN a service company, they track fairly closely...but your taking money during the year isn't the taxable event. Closing the year is the event. Whether you took the profits or not has no effect on your taxes.

Rgtaxservice (talk|edits) said:

16 January 2008
Your company profit is taxable. If it profits 50K, its taxable. It does not matter if you 'draw' $1 or $50,000.

I corrected it - thanks JR

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

January 17, 2008
Does NOT matter I'm sure Rg's saying.

Rcmcfe (talk|edits) said:

17 January 2008
JR, Rg...Thanks. Thats the distinction that I was looking for. Where are the distributions & profits reported? I know salary goes on the W2 and then to line 7 of the 1040, but what about distributions and profits?

Thanks again.

Rgtaxservice (talk|edits) said:

17 January 2008
Your S-Corp income is reported on 1120S. Shareholder passthru info is reported to you on a K-1 (part of 1120S), and the K-1 information gets reported on Sch E (page 2) of your 1040.

Rcmcfe (talk|edits) said:

17 January 2008
Ok...so "distributions" (not profits) are not reported at all?

Rgtaxservice (talk|edits) said:

17 January 2008
Profits get transferred from your k-1 and reported on your 1040.

Distributions are shown on line 16 of your k-1 but it stays there. It nots get transfered anywhere else.

Rcmcfe (talk|edits) said:

17 January 2008
Thanks for your help Rg...

Beautifulblooms (talk|edits) said:

24 January 2008
I filed papers in October 2007 to become an S corp effective 1/1/2007. My accountant wrote a letter asking for the exception (missed the typical deadline). To our surprise, it was granted. So, on paper we have been an s corp since 1/1/2007. My dilema--I have not been paying myself as an employee, only taking draws. Our company opperated as an LLC/Sole Prop. until this S corp change. I have no plans to evade the SS taxes due, but can not figure out how to document this. I did not take a reasonable salary, on my 1120S I filled in 0.00 for my salary. Can I simply report my draws on my 1040 as income and pay all appropriate taxes there? Or do I have to go back and adjust my books to show a single salary check cut on 12/31/2007 with appropriate payroll taxes withheld? Any insite would be great. It would have been easier (although more expensive) if it would be effective 1/1/2008!

Reelsafari (talk|edits) said:

25 January 2008
When forming an S corp with one shareholder, namely the owner, does the owner pay themself a salary as an officer, say the President, or as an employee, say the manager? In other words, should the salary be designated to one position rather than the other, for example, salary of the President is $0 however the salary of the manager is $40k/year. Or vice versa. Any advantage of one over the other? Thanks.

S

Johnhuddleston (talk|edits) said:

25 January 2008
Beautiful Blooms,

You can still report Q4 salary. The 941 is not due until Jan 31. You can pay employment taxes at that time up to $2500 without a penalty for failing to deposit employment taxes. If you have zero income tax withholding, your salary can be over $16,000 and your total tax will be under $2500. That's much better than zero salary. You can also pay a management fee from your corp to you and issue a 1099. The fee will be subject to self employment taxes. It's better to pay a salary than use the management fee method. However, that is a way to get the IRS their employment taxes. An auditor may be forgiving if you explain the circumstances and that you are not trying to avoid tax.

John Huddleston Seattle Bellevue Tax Accountant