Discussion:Renting a home you don't own

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{{ForumReplyPost|UserID=Denisev1220|Date=4 November 2009|Text=Thanks for all the input. CrowJD, the relatives are NOT living in any of these homes. Thanks to Mscash as well. I was not aware of the fact that the IRS would file liens against these properties, but it is good to know for the future. I am blessed in the fact that at least for now, the client does not owe any back taxes at all. I think I have enough issues with this audit without having that to contend with as well :)}} {{ForumReplyPost|UserID=Denisev1220|Date=4 November 2009|Text=Thanks for all the input. CrowJD, the relatives are NOT living in any of these homes. Thanks to Mscash as well. I was not aware of the fact that the IRS would file liens against these properties, but it is good to know for the future. I am blessed in the fact that at least for now, the client does not owe any back taxes at all. I think I have enough issues with this audit without having that to contend with as well :)}}
-{{ForumReplyPost|UserID=CrowJD|Date=4 November 2009|Text=the relatives are NOT living in any of these homes (right, but I bet the loans are based upon them being owner occupied housing....get it? In other words, the whole idea is to put a strawman forward to pretend like he will owner occupy the house. Obviously, the "client" can't do this, because it would be immediately obvious to the mortgage company that he couldn't live in all those houses).}}+{{ForumReplyPost|UserID=CrowJD|Date=4 November 2009|Text="the relatives are NOT living in any of these homes" (right, but I bet the loans are based upon them being owner occupied housing....get it? In other words, the whole idea is to put a strawman forward to pretend like he will owner occupy the house. Obviously, the "client" can't do this, because it would be immediately obvious to the mortgage company that he couldn't live in all those houses).}}

Revision as of 02:21, 4 November 2009

Discussion Forum Index --> Advanced Tax Questions --> Renting a home you don't own
Discussion Forum Index --> Tax Questions --> Renting a home you don't own

Denisev1220 (talk|edits) said:

26 October 2009
I can't seem to find this particular problem posted. I have a client who owns 20 homes he rents. In addition to this, he bought several homes in other peoples names (relatives). He rents these homes out, collects the rent and makes the mortgage payments. The owners have nothing to do with the property.

I know client cannot take the 1098 expense because he is not legally liable for it. But he does generate income, where do I claim this? I could put it on Sch E, with no expenses, though he does have receipts for things such as blinds installed in these homes etc. It is passive, so I am thinking line 21 on the 1040 won't work. I have not done any of his returns, but am representing him in an audit. The last preparer, didn't claim any of this other income, and only claimed 4 of his homes. Any guidance on this would be appreciated. I have explained to him that even though he made the payments and there were in excess of rent received, he will still have to claim the income. Thanks

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

27 October 2009
Use the yellow block to search for equitable or beneficial ownership.

The statement about the last preparer fascinates me.

KathiJud (talk|edits) said:

27 October 2009
If you are managing rental property owned by another person are you not just collecting management fees and need to report on Sch C? I'm thinking in the context of the individuals who contract with owners, find tenants, collect rent, pay expenses on behalf of the owners, subtract their management fee and remit balances to those owners. In this case it appears his management fee took up the whole balance and nothing was left to be paid to owners. And he may lose on trying to deduct any operating expenses since he paid them on behalf of the owners. Possibly has some auto expenses etc. he could take.

KathiJud (talk|edits) said:

27 October 2009
Let's hope that other preparer was in the dark about the other houses.

Denisev1220 (talk|edits) said:

27 October 2009
I have actually sat down and spoken to the prior preparer. She knew about all the homes. In fact, she took 101k in mortgage interest for them on a Sch C. Also put the property taxes there. She took no depreciation, said she didn't see the use since he already had a loss at 25k (which by the way, he can't take).

The Sch C she dreamt up was due to some broker co-op commissions he received. It seems the seller, developer etc. pays an incentive up front, although that amount is added to his purchase price of the home. Example. Buyer buys for 500k, there is a 5% commission involved. At closing there is a check to a broker for 25k, broker takes a few % off, and issues a check to buyer for the remaining amount. Mortgage is for 525k. I have spoken with one of the brokers to understand the process. Since the buyer is paying for that money in his mortgage, I think it would be similar to someone pulling out $$ during a refi. No tax consequence. But the broker, not knowing what to do issues 1099s. These total 385k. So preparer says she was looking for deductions against them so client wouldn't owe so much in taxes. I am not convinced the 1099s were taxable to begin with. There are even more issues with the return, but I don't have time to list them all. It is a big mess. KathiJud, client did not get any management fee of any kind. It cost him more than he brought in with rental fees. He (and the relative) consider the home to be owned by my client. It was "just" in someone elses name. Client did all the work, paid all the bills etc. made no profit EXCEPT I don't think he can claim any deductions. SO just need to know if I put it on a C or an E, and what in the world would I call this kind of "business?".

EasternPA (talk|edits) said:

27 October 2009
Me thinks the IRS would look at "family owned" properties as:

1. He has made gifts to the named family members

2. He has not paid gift taxes.

3. Thus he has no basis in these properties.

I agree with KathiJ that has to be treated as "property management job."

4. He should give each family member "losses/gains/deductions" statements to their rightful owners (so they may report it on their SchE). He may take a mangement fee, if there is a profit to be had or if the family members pay him for it. (I know over his dead body.)

SCCPA (talk|edits) said:

27 October 2009
In addition to this, he bought several homes in other peoples names (relatives). He rents these homes out, collects the rent and makes the mortgage payments. The owners have nothing to do with the property.


It's difficult to determine whether he is an equitable owner or property manager without knowing why he does this. Has he ever said why?

Denisev1220 (talk|edits) said:

27 October 2009
He owns 20 homes of his own, but I think he couldn't get approved to buy these based on the number already owned. I am trying to confirm this though. And also to see if there are any written deals that would give him the home upon the owner's demise etc.
I found this tax court case based on information from another forum question. Pages 15-17 seem to indicate he might actually be able to deduct the mortgage interest and property taxes. 

Feedback is sure appreciated. I haven't yet managed to find anyone that I am connected to that has experienced this.

KathiJud (talk|edits) said:

27 October 2009
I was reading up on equitable/beneficial ownership. He definitely took on the burdens and benefits of ownership. I think you'd need to get an opinion on whether he would have rights to ownership in these homes even though he is not on the mortgage or the deed. A signed agreement between him and the named owners would probably help.

Denisev1220 (talk|edits) said:

27 October 2009
He had no agreements in writing, he said he was going to, but didn't get it done. He states it was easier to qualify with other peoples names instead of his.

The court case I was referring to is here http://www.ustaxcourt.gov/InOpHistoric/TRANSDAN.TCM.WPD.pdf I guess I am tired and forgot to send it. How can I tell if this case can be used to argue his case to the auditor? Thanks again

Solomon (talk|edits) said:

27 October 2009
In addition to Trans, you might look at Uslu (TCM) and Njenge (Summary).

"How can I tell if this case can be used to argue his case to the auditor?"

The types of authority are listed in §1.6662-4(d)(3)(iii). A court case is a type of authority.

EasternPA (talk|edits) said:

27 October 2009
Thanks for the reference. The Tran case has a lot of interesting facets.

But let's just focus on the Milpita property, the parents lived in the property and son transferred the deed to the place by year end. Don't these facts bolster their claim for equitable ownership, over this situation. (BTW the IRS made a technical blunder, by not making sure that parents had paid the taxes themselves. Judge disallowed IRS from verifying that during the trial.)

Would the case be as strong for rental property which neither 'Uncle Ben' or 'Nephew Jerry', if neither lived in the property.

Would not this be a sly way of transferring property from Uncle Ben to nephew? At his death, Uncle Ben's equitable ownership melts away like fog. Only the deed with the nephew's name remains.

Denisev1220 (talk|edits) said:

27 October 2009
After looking at the above court cases, I have printed them off. I am going to take the position that he has in fact shown an equitable or beneficial ownership. When the audit is all over, I will try to remember to come back and let everyone know how it went. I do appreciate all the feedback and assistance. I love this forum!!! Working alone has its disadvantages in times like these. Did I mention this is my first audit? What a way to learn.

EasternPA (talk|edits) said:

28 October 2009
Riley2 left a nice definition of equitable ownership at the bottom of this similar discussion:

http://www.taxalmanac.org/index.php/Discussion:Rental_Income/Expenses:_Can_LLC_report_these_if_they_do_not_own_the_property_or_mortgage%3F

CrowJD (talk|edits) said:

28 October 2009
He BOUGHT homes in other people's names...relatives. Oh jeez. One wonders if such fellows as this are committing little mortgage fraud by using strawmen.

KathiJud (talk|edits) said:

28 October 2009
I'm wondering how you have (1)ability to acquire title , (2) ability to sell (3) legal right to retain the sales proceeds. Wouldn't that require either a verbal or written agreement between the owner on the mortgage and title and the TP operating them as rentals?

CrowJD (talk|edits) said:

28 October 2009
The man does not own the houses, that's true, but he solves this problem by owning his relatives.

Hopefully, we will get back to community banking (meaning W-2 loan officers and NOT mortgage brokers), where they hold the loans to term and do proper underwriting, and start policing some of this "alleged" fraud.

EasternPA (talk|edits) said:

28 October 2009
And not to mention transfer to heirs without going thru the bother of estate and gift taxes. Equitable ownership - the wave of the future. This loophole is big enough to drive a mobile home thru it. There's got to be a catch.

Uncle Ben buys a rental building put its under Nephew Jerry's name. Jerry's 21 he don't give a rip and signs a hand written agreement giving his uncle all rights to the rental. Uncle Ben keeps it in his safe. If the IRS questions his 'gift', he just claims equitable ownership. When the mortgage is paid off, Uncle Ben says "Jerry, you really turned your life around. Let's burn this little agreement and the building is yours." So they light up their cigars, take a deep puff and exhale contentedly.

Denisev1220 (talk|edits) said:

28 October 2009
lol... from what I know so far, all were verbal agreements. All relatives were happy to help out it seems. But this is far from a happy ending folks. There won't be any inheritance or parties. The audit is for 2007, but he has already lost 7 of the homes with more to follow. When this house of cards fall down,I think he will be lucky to save his own home. He understands that too.

Anybody know anything about broker co-op comissions? This guy got 385,000 in refi money and co-ops. Since all money received was added onto existing mortgages, can it really all be tax-free when received?

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

28 October 2009
Maybe, but now you have to go to Harry's favorite subject, interest tracing rules, to see if the interest from the re-fis is deductible.

Denisev1220 (talk|edits) said:

30 October 2009
Well I survived the first day, she wanted to just have the interview and do the income section. We got half way through the income in 3 hours. I go back in a few weeks for the rest. She agreed that my client qualified for the equitable or beneficial ownership on the other homes. Not sure yet about the Co-ops being non-taxable. She said she needed to research it some more. Now on to interest tracing... this is going to be a mess for sure. Too many homes. He purchased 8 homes in 2007, and had 13 refinances. Thanks for all the help.

EasternPA (talk|edits) said:

2 November 2009
He was on a roll, till Lady Luck gave him the cold shoulder. The guards took him away when he rolled 13. A unlucky night for love and refinance.

Denisev1220 (talk|edits) said:

2 November 2009
I keep thinking, if only he had waited another year and started buying up homes at today's prices. On the other hand, loans aren't nearly as easy to come by as they once were.

CrowJD (talk|edits) said:

2 November 2009
I've seen loan brokers themselves get involved in this, right?

They have to use strawmen because they are "loaned-up" to begin with, but they know the system, and they can get these people the loans. Also, since the TP cannot "owner-occupy" all these homes for the best rates, he sets his relatives and others up as strawmen, and has them show as owner-occupants.

It's a form of mortgage fraud, some would say.

"I keep thinking, if only he had waited another year and started buying up homes at today's prices." Today's prices are today's prices because the homes are worth less. And when they do inch up, they inch up in terms of a debased dollar. IT'S ILLUSORY.

All this recovery is with a debased dollar. Though I do agree that inflation would be much worse if so many of those dollars had not simply disappeared (but dollars don't really just disappear). We shall see; if we don't get some serious inflation fairly soon, then that could actually be a sign that we could end up with a severe double dip (further deflation). So, tell him to hold on, it's a possibility he can pick those houses up even cheaper than they are today.

Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said:

2 November 2009
However, on the other hand, nonetheless, we will pay our [future] taxes with debased dollars. Oy.

CrowJD (talk|edits) said:

2 November 2009
Yeah, and they get to pay back the TARP with debased dollars (those that do).

If inflation does take hold, it will be a tough period, because the Chinese will still keep our wages down.* Hence, we will be subject to inflation, with no way to get a real increase in pay.


.*I should say the Chinese; and the H1B visa which just imports the cheap educated labor straight to America.

Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said:

3 November 2009
laissez-faire

Mscash (talk|edits) said:

3 November 2009
The issue has come up before and yes he can claim the interest. He is the beneficial owner of the rentals while title is held in the name of nominees. If he owed delinquent taxes IRS would file liens against the property formally titled to relatives. It works the other way too.

Denisev1220 (talk|edits) said:

4 November 2009
Thanks for all the input. CrowJD, the relatives are NOT living in any of these homes. Thanks to Mscash as well. I was not aware of the fact that the IRS would file liens against these properties, but it is good to know for the future. I am blessed in the fact that at least for now, the client does not owe any back taxes at all. I think I have enough issues with this audit without having that to contend with as well :)

CrowJD (talk|edits) said:

4 November 2009
"the relatives are NOT living in any of these homes" (right, but I bet the loans are based upon them being owner occupied housing....get it? In other words, the whole idea is to put a strawman forward to pretend like he will owner occupy the house. Obviously, the "client" can't do this, because it would be immediately obvious to the mortgage company that he couldn't live in all those houses).