Discussion:Imputed rent - equity sharing
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| Revision as of 03:41, 15 March 2008 Gerbie1987 (Talk | contribs) (New Discussion) ← Previous diff |
Revision as of 03:53, 15 March 2008 PostingFromWork (Talk | contribs) (26 USC 280A(d)(3) Next diff → |
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| I am fairly new to this forum and not sure how all this works; I tried to continue a previous discussion on this topic but got no responses - apparently it is now closed (it was from a month ago). }} | I am fairly new to this forum and not sure how all this works; I tried to continue a previous discussion on this topic but got no responses - apparently it is now closed (it was from a month ago). }} | ||
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| + | {{ForumReplyPost|UserID=PostingFromWork|Date=15 March 2008|Text=26 USC 280A(d)(3) as cited in the other thread.}} | ||
Revision as of 03:53, 15 March 2008
Discussion Forum Index --> Advanced Tax Questions --> Imputed rent - equity sharing
Discussion Forum Index --> Tax Questions --> Imputed rent - equity sharing
Gerbie1987 (talk|edits) said: | 15 March 2008 |
| My client (Investor) is on title to a home; she owns 33.3% and Occupier owns 66.6%. Occupier obtained the mortgage solely in his name and pays the mortgage. Since she is not liable for the mortgage and does not pay any of it, would 1/3 of the mortgage payment still be imputed to be rent to her? I'd really appreciate some help on this one.
I am fairly new to this forum and not sure how all this works; I tried to continue a previous discussion on this topic but got no responses - apparently it is now closed (it was from a month ago). | |
PostingFromWork (talk|edits) said: | 15 March 2008 |
| 26 USC 280A(d)(3) as cited in the other thread. | |
