Discussion:First time homebuyer credit-Divorce issue
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Revision as of 19:08, 9 September 2009
Discussion Forum Index --> Basic Tax Questions --> First time homebuyer credit-Divorce issue
Discussion Forum Index --> Tax Questions --> First time homebuyer credit-Divorce issue
Tiredoftaxes (talk|edits) said: | 9 September 2009 |
| I have a client who finalized her divorce in 12/08. She was married since 2004. They bought a house after they were married in 2004, but the husband only had his name on the legal papers and mortgage. The client bought a home in 1/09 solely in her name. So as of the date of purchase(1/09), she was single. She is stating that her lawyer told her that she qualified for the credit. After researching the topic, I am not sure. Does being previously married and the husband owning the house solely imply that she had ownership interest in the house? She did not receive the house in the settlement, nor any of the tax deductions relating to it. She didn't technically own a personal residence prior to the divorce, but her husband did. Or does the date of purchase, since it is subsequent to the divorce, mean that she does not have any ownership interest in the old house? I would appreciate any help in this matter. | |
