Discussion:What happens to interest deduction on personal residence home equity loan proceeds which are used to buy a new personal residence?

From TaxAlmanac, A Free Online Resource
Note: You are using this website at your own risk, subject to our Disclaimer and Website Use and Contribution Terms.

From TaxAlmanac

Jump to: navigation, search

Discussion Forum Index --> Tax Questions --> What happens to interest deduction on personal residence home equity loan proceeds which are used to buy a new personal residence?

Kendrick (talk|edits) said:

11 August 2006
TP borrows $100K on LOC secured by his personal residence. He puts that money down on a new residence, and converts his original home to a rental. Does he lose the interest deduction on this LOC? He can't write it off as a rental expense, he can only write off the interest on the original acquisition debt as a rental expense. He can't write it off as personal residence interest. The LOC is not secured by the new residence.

I reckon all TP can do is wait until he has enough equity in the new home to get an LOC secured by it, and use the proceeds to pay off the LOC secured by the old residence which is now a rental property.

This must happen all the time. Am I seeing this right? Are there any loopholes I am missing to get that interest deducted somewhere?

Solomon (talk|edits) said:

12 August 2006
Think you are right - unless allocation regs. could be stretched to apply in some way.

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

12 August 2006
You can elect out of treating it as Home Equity interest at the time of the loan, but to what purpose? If it were used to buy the rental property this would be the proper course, but here? I see no way around the problem. I suppose the deduction would be allowed for the interest paid between loan date and date of conversion to rental property, but that is it.

JCTMSTx (talk|edits) said:

12 August 2006
TP is converting the original home to rental! If the TP rents it out (temporarily)they fall under 1.1034-1(c)(3). It would still be considered one of his personal residences for the mortgage interest deduction. Of course TP would also declare the rental income.

Hypothetically speaking, I moved out of a house and decided to convert it to rental property. In addition, I wanted to take the equity out of that property. I would secure a mortgage on that property. Whether I treated it as residential real estate or placed in Sub S I don't see why the mortgage interest could'nt be deductible against my rental income. What is done with the proceeds from the loan are not relevent. This is merely leveraging a property.

I'm not quite sure what LOC means. Letter of Credit or Line of Credit. I assumed since it was secured by the personal residence it was in essence a home equity loan and therefore deductible. (Albeit the proceeds did'nt go into the 1st residence.)

Kendrick (talk|edits) said:

12 August 2006
JCTMSTx, a question I have heard often is what can one do with the interest expense on a HOME EQUITY LOAN after the property has been converted to a rental property. In particular, a HOME EQUITY LOAN that was used for personal purposes and is no more than $100,000. The homeowner got the loan, knowing he could write-off the interest expense on a HOME EQUITY LOAN up to $100,000, on his Schedule A. Well, when he later converts that property to rental property, it sounds like you are saying you continue to deduct this interest expense on Schedule E. Most CPA's I have spoke with about this say that once the home is converted to a rental, the interest on the HOME EQUITY LOAN becomes personal interest and is no longer deductible. If you continue to deduct this interest expense on Schedule E, along with the interest expense on the original ACQUISITION DEBT, I would like to hear more about it. I don't believe the tracing rules allow it, but I am hoping you know something I don't know.

JCTMSTx (talk|edits) said:

14 August 2006
Kendrick:

Home equity indebedness is all debt other than acquisition debt secured by the residence to the extent it does not exceed the FMV of the residence reduced by any acquisition debt. Interest on such debt is deductible even if the proceeds are used for personal expenditures (subject to the limit). However, the debt must be secured by the qualified residence. Until the residence is converted its deductible on Sched A. The CPA's are correct that the texts all say that the the interest paid is then nondeductible personal interest. (For a personal residence)

However, once the property is "converted" to residential rental property the loan is then a business loan collateralized by the rental property. It is therefore deductible on Schedule E as an ordinary and necessary business expense. The personal residence code sections no longer apply to the situation upon convesion. I hope this answers your question.

Mtmckeecpa (talk|edits) said:

14 August 2006
JCT,

So are you saying in your last paragraph that the home equity loan interest expense, once the residential property is converted to a rental property, is deductible on Sch E?

JCTMSTx (talk|edits) said:

14 August 2006
Yes, thats what I am saying. I don't even think the paperwork on the loan has to be changed since it would reflect the same name as their personal tax return.

Mtmckeecpa (talk|edits) said:

14 August 2006
JCT,

I would have thought that the tracing rules apply here and I would consider that personal interest and non deductible on the sch E. I still consider it non deductible...trying to understand the rational here.

To me, the equity loan on the personal residence converted to a rental is the same as pulling out $10k on an equity line on a rental for personal purposes and deducting that interest on the Sch E. I would not take that deduction.

JCTMSTx (talk|edits) said:

15 August 2006
You are correct if he uses it for personal purposes if they did not materially participate. Then you allocate (trace) the interest expense falling into each category. That is specifically exampled in the regs. I submit that is not your clients status.

For example: Many of my clients have residential real estate and do all of the billings and repairs, thus materially participate. We refinance existing building to make acquisitions of other properties. We refinance buildings to buy other businesses. Interest of debt incurred in connection with the taxpayers trade of business in which you materially participate is " generally " deductible in full. One of the exceptions to generally is personal interest.

I do not consider this personal because it is collateralized by a business asset as the code states. Persoanl interest under section 163 (h) excludes interest on debt incurred or carried in connection with the taxpayers trade or business.

I understand your logic and that you may not consider that debt incurred or carried in connection with the trade or business since they used the proceeds to buy a personal residence. I don't see it that way since the code or the regs. do not prevent it. If the business took the debt its theirs. If the law does'nt specifically exclude it then its allowed. I advise my clients to take this deduction even if the proceeds are used for personal expenditures. All businesses have the legal right to make a business decision to incurr more debt.

Solomon (talk|edits) said:

15 August 2006
As I understand this all, TP takes 100k home equity loan on residence and uses money to buy a second residence. If he converts first residence to a rental it is okay to deduct home equity loan interest on Sch E. If he did not convert first residence to a rental, and sold it then tracing rules apply and he could not deduct interest on home equity loan. Is that right?

Solomon (talk|edits) said:

15 August 2006
Sec. 163 (h)(2)(A) and (h)(3)(A)(ii). (h)(2)(A) makes it clear that trade or business interest is not personal so JCT is right. On the other hand, (h)(3)(A)(ii) regarding qualified residence for home equity debt is determined at the time the interest is accrued. Don't know what "when interest is accrued means." If this means accrued monthly, then if the residence was converted to a rental would that not mean it negates its valid status as home equity debt? On the other hand, if when interest is accrued means at the time the loan was incurred, then JCT is still right.

Kendrick (talk|edits) said:

15 August 2006
Solomon, what do you do in your practice. Regarding the original question, if your client converts a personal residence to a rental, and there is a home equity loan secured by the residence that was used for personal purposes, do you start deducting the interest on the home equity loan on the Schedule E, along with the interest on the acquisition debt? I hope JCT is right, but it just doesn't make sense to me.

Solomon (talk|edits) said:

15 August 2006
Ken -

Play golf most of the time. Do may be 100 or so returns during the season. What is your take in the areas of 163 I cited?

Mtmckeecpa (talk|edits) said:

15 August 2006
Help me clarify this discussion...I would agree with Ken's initial post about losing the interest deduction on the LOC once it goes from residential to rental.

I don't agree or misunderstand JCT's 2nd post as follows

"However, once the property is "converted" to residential rental property the loan is then a business loan collateralized by the rental property. It is therefore deductible on Schedule E as an ordinary and necessary business expense. The personal residence code sections no longer apply to the situation upon convesion. I hope this answers your question."

This is what I READ/HEAR is being said:

Let's say my primary residence has a mort of $100k, but is worth $600k. While still living in my primary residence I take out a LOC of $300k to buy an old painting. 3 months later I move out of my home to an apartment for the next 3 years. I convert my former residence to a rental house and lease it for the next 3 years.

Is the interest on the LOC of $300k deductible on Sch E?

I say no and JCT seems to be saying yes...maybe I just don't get it.

Solomon (talk|edits) said:

15 August 2006
Mt - Click the link on 163 a few posts ago and read the areas I cited and let me know your take on them. Especially, Sec. 163 (h)(3)(A)(ii).

JCTMSTx (talk|edits) said:

16 August 2006
Mt as Kendrick stated its capped at $100,000

Mtmckeecpa (talk|edits) said:

16 August 2006
Sol,

Ok, I understand 163(h)(2)(A) as deductible interest properly allocable to a trade or business and 163(h)(3)(A)(ii) home equity indebtedness with respect to a qualified residence.

If the "qualified residence" converts to a rental property then based on 163(h)(3)(A)(ii) that interest is no longer considered qualified residence interest and no longer deductible on Sch A as home equity indebtedness.

So, in my view, now, the LOC interest now has to fall under some other provision of 163(h)(2) in order to be deductible.

If you can trace the LOC proceeds to fall under 163(h)(2)(A) - (F) then you may have a deductible expense. Otherwise, the LOC interest is nondeductible personal interest.

In Ken's original post, it is my opinion that the LOC interest can't be traced to any provision under 163(h)(2) once the qualified residence turns to rental property and therefore is not deductible on schedule E.

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

16 August 2006
Let's not buy an old painting, Mt, for there could you not elect out of home equity interest and treat it as investment interest, assuming the painting was bought for investment purposes? Going back to Sol's question of when interest is accrued, if I purchase a property using a note secured by a mortgage on the property, at settlement I pay interest through the end of the month of purchase, then I do not make my first payment until the end of the next month, actually the lst of the month that follows. If I buy today, I pay interest from 8/16 thru 8/31 on the HUD-1 but my next payment is due 10/1/06. Do I accrue September's interest on September 1st and each month thereafter? If I do this the 1098 Form will not reflect the December interest, but that is not the point here, but rather I don't think I should depend on the lender to determine my bookkeeping.

JCTMSTx (talk|edits) said:

16 August 2006
Above cite was bad 1.1304 (repealed). Went to Publ 936 to comfirm use of proceeds for a deductible or other deductible purpose. The example used the proceeds to buy stock and it was deductible as secured debt.

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

16 August 2006
Correction to my last: "for there could you elect out of home equity interest and treat it as investment interest" Thank goodness I did not write those famous Commandments.

Solomon (talk|edits) said:

16 August 2006
Mt -

I think you summarized it quite well.

JCTMSTx (talk|edits) said:

16 August 2006
The interest expense is not traced its allocated in two parts.

Part I: By using "Sched A" for the months the home is "not rented" you have elected to treat the mrtg int exp as residence (Second Home). This portion of the year is covered under Sec. 163 (H)(2)(d) and further defined under (H)(3)(A). Part II. By using Sched E for the months when the home is rented you have elected to convert to residential real estate (ie: trade or business) and qualify under Sec. 163 (h) (2)(A). This is not an "or" statute where you must use one or the other for the entire year. You use them both for the portion of the year as required by the facts. The property was convert from a personal residence to residential rental real eastate at some point during the year and therefore must be represented as such on the tax return.

Solomon (talk|edits) said:

16 August 2006
Why has Riley been silent on this one? JCT - what does "time interest is accrued" mean in Sec. 163 (h)(3)(A)(ii).

Mtmckeecpa (talk|edits) said:

16 August 2006
I agree with part I.

I don't agree with part II. When the primary residence is converted to a rental house, the original acquisition indebtedness is deductible on Sch E, assuming no passive activity limitations Sec. 163(h)(2)(C). I wouldn't use Sec. 163(h)(2)(A).

However, in my opinion, the interest on the LOC (home equity indebtedness on the former qualified residence) now can't be traced to the qualified residence and therefore can't be deducted on Sch A., nor can any of the proceeds be traced to any of the exceptions under 163(h)(2), therefore in my opinion the LOC interest is personal interest and nondeductible.

I just don't see how the interest expense on debt proceeds on a home equity indebtedness loan can fit into 163(h)(2)(A) UNLESS (1) the debt can be traced to a valid trade or business on a schedule C (in the original post it can't be traced to a trade or business) OR (2) a rental real estate activity under 163(h)(2)(C) (in the original post it can't be traced to another rental property).

JCTMSTx (talk|edits) said:

17 August 2006
Sol

"The time the interest accrued" refers to qualified residence and the debt coexist during the same tax period.

Mtm

Rental property does fit under trade of business. Reg. 1.163-8T(n)(3)(iii) Business or rental activity. (A) A business or rental activity is any trade or business or rental activity of the taxpayer. For this purpose- A trade or business includes a business or profession the income and deduction of which are properly reported on Sched C, E, F of Form 1040; and (B) A rental activity includes an activy of renting property blah blah which are properly reported on Sched E. No Sched C is required.

Mtm What is the authority for "tracing"? I'm not familiar with the concept your applying. It seems your saying it must be rental property to rental property debt. It does'nt have to be rental to rental. It just has to be deductible debt secured by the property.

Riley2 (talk|edits) said:

18 August 2006
Yes, it is true that the first $100,000 in home equity indebtedness (debt secured by a qualified residence) does not need to be traced to a particular expenditure in order to be deductible. However, the fact pattern in the original post involved debt secured by rental property (not a qualified residence at the time of accrual), and tracing would obviously be required here for any interest accrued after the conversion to rental purposes. The fact that the debt is secured by rental property does not make the interest deductible on Schedule E.

The authority for the tracing requirement is found in Reg. 1.163-8T.

Michaelstar (talk|edits) said:

19 August 2006
Riley2 has again presented the code section for what most of us already follow. To suggest that the taxpayer can deduct mortgage interest expense on a line of credit used for personal purposes (secured by the residence) for debt AFTER the residence has been converted to a rental just blows my mind. For the interest to be deductible against the rental it must be either be the original acquisition indebtness or new debt where the proceeds are used on the rental - not vacations, cars etc.... either before or after.

We all come here to read, learn and assist others down the correct road based on our experience. Hopefully, all who have been following this post will correctly apply the applicable rules here and not be taking interst deductions that are clearly non deductible.

Mtmckeecpa (talk|edits) said:

21 August 2006
I have been out of town for the last 4 days...but HOPEFULLY this issue is now put to bed.

Swheeler (talk|edits) said:

29 February 2008
What a great discussion. Don't know if I should start a new post, but here goes. Taxpayer bought a residence for 1.7M using a rental for 500K down and borrowed 1.2M. Got out of the first hurdle by having a home office allocation. However, no interest deduction for the borrowed money for the down on the rental or the residence. Following year, taxpayer moves out of the residence and rents it out. Now, it would appear the interest from the borrowed money on the rental is traceable to a rental property and fully deductible. Is it?

Kevinh5 (talk|edits) said:

29 February 2008
Steve, are you saying that he traded in a $500K rental for the residence?

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

1 March 2008
If I get this correctly, he used the equity in the rental for the down payment on his residence and then took a mortgage [that did exceed the 1 million plus 100K equity limit] and now has turned this property into a rental. It would seem under tracing rules that you are correct; the entire 1.7 debt would be allocable to the second rental property.

Kevinh5 (talk|edits) said:

1 March 2008
DT, don't you wonder how he 'used the equity in the rental"? Did he borrow against it, pledge it, trade it?

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

1 March 2008
I am assuming he borrowed against it; this was before the credit crunch and subprime lending fiasco. I get that from the phrase ' the borrowed money on the rental is traceable to a rental property' but maybe I am being a pollyanna.

Ken@seamann.com (talk|edits) said:

2 March 2008
Just so happens I have had this question come up today. Let me try to state my instance & understanding.

Client had personal residence which he refied & used $120,000 from refi to put downpayment on new residence & converted old residence into rental property. It is my understanding that he CANNOT reallocate the interest on the $120k to the new residence as it is not secured by the new residence. The 2006 part of this thread confused the heck out of me, but the 2008 part has been in conformance with what I have always thought.

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

2 March 2008
I think you hit it on the nose....the personal residence must be the security for the loan to be deductible.

Swheeler (talk|edits) said:

7 March 2008
Sorry guys, guess I wasn't clear and my late response is because nobody that runs this page will tell me why I can't get auto responses, which should be very simple. Anyway, here goes. My client has a rental property worth about 6M. He borrowed 500K on it to buy a pricy condo for 1.7M, the 500 used as a down payment on the condo. He lives in the condo. So I understand the consequence of that borrowing i.e. no interest deduction on the down payment and limits on the borrowing on the residence due to the cap, although in his case, we have a home office, so there are no limits there. This bozo is paying over $30,000 a year in non-deductible interest because he didn't ask before doing, although I'm not sure there was much that could have been done. In any event, the question remains, if he moves out and uses it as a rental, then I assume the issue goes away. By the way, I also believe that a percentage of the interest on the 500K loan is deductible to the extent it pertains to the homd office percentage.

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

7 March 2008
I agree with you on the analysis on the conversion to rental; not sure on the other but it does stand to reason since Line 16 says 'excess mortgage interest.' You can't stop people from committing blunders...or as the late chess grandmaster Tartakover said, 'the blunders are out there, just waiting to be made' or words to that effect.

Swheeler (talk|edits) said:

7 March 2008
New client, but applies to old clients that never call until after the deed is done.

To join in on this discussion, you must first log in.
Personal tools