Discussion:Unwanted special allowance for rentals?
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Discussion Forum Index --> Tax Questions --> Unwanted special allowance for rentals?
| 15 October 2009 | |
| I have a client(Married filing joint)<$25000 AGI that would have no benefit from the use of the $25,000 special allowance for rental real estate activities and would simply like to suspend the loss and carry it forward into a more lucrative year against ordinary income etc. Can the RE loss on schedule E line 23 just be eliminated, and put zero on 1040? or does he have to file separately as crazy as it sounds (this disallows allowance if living together), or use PAL Form 8582 and call it passive without active participation? (might change use against ordinary income)? | |
| 15 October 2009 | |
| If there is active participation, then don't say there isn't. | |
| 15 October 2009 | |
| If your $25K allowance gives no current tax benefit, it becomes part of an NOL carryover and will be available for the coming year. Just elect your NOL carryover instead of carryback. Why give up the benefits of MFJ? | |
Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said: | 15 October 2009 |
| And if you say there is no active participation, it traps the loss in that format for the future, so that next year if income is 100K, you might not be able to claim it. | |
RoyDaleOne (talk|edits) said: | 15 October 2009 |
| D&T what????
Want to show me how loss is trapped. | |
Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said: | 15 October 2009 |
| The unused loss is listed on Line 3a of 8582 and will not be taken into consideration when computing the 25K special allowance for losses in the future. If the rental activity shows a profit, it will be available. | |
| 15 October 2009 | |
| My understanding is that the O part in NOL is "operating" loss and would not be used for sch E "passive income" sources? It is also my understanding that a passive loss is only carried forward not back? So the election part kinda suggest that the NOL is not for passive income? Now if it was material participation as a real estate professional I would guess the NOL would be correct. Would not the NOL on line 21 then require the use of the NOL without ($25,000 max) limitation, and reduce ordinary income the next year before standard deductions etc? The point being to suspend until there is a benefit maybe 3 years down the road or at sale to offset profits. I really appreciate any help as I am stumped on this and maybe over thinking it somehow. | |
| 15 October 2009 | |
| The 25K allowance is not treated as a passive item subject to form 8582 carryover. The allowance goes to the front of the 1040 as an allowable rental loss and if it doesn't give you current year tax benefit then yes it is part of your NOL from that year. | |
| 15 October 2009 | |
| OK, So the negative (25,000) goes on 1040 line 17 that reduces the $20,000 from lines 7-16 to negative ($5000) by line 22 and agi stays negative before standard deductions etc on line 40. Then since clearly there was no benefit,the decision is made to put the ($25,000) into a NOL carry forward, (still keeping the (25000) on line 17 and part of the calcs)until it can be used to actually reduce tax liability. Is this correct? | |
Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said: | 15 October 2009 |
| Although the rental loss is, I believe, allowed to be part of the NOL, getting it there is much more mechanically complicated than the posts so far let on. Very possibly there won't be an NOL or the NOL will be "teeny" compared to the [allowed] rental loss. | |
| 15 October 2009 | |
| I still dont know if it is part of the NOL because Sch E losses are forward only? with no year limitations? (NOL forward 20yr back 2). But I did the 1045 Sch A to see what the outcome would be and it appears there would be a small reduction as long as you didn't make more than the Itemized deduction. If you made more, than you would essentially lose the benefit your exemptions $10500 in this case. So I am still stuck with these ideas (1)locking into passive on 3a of 8582 (2)Married filing separate but living together (3) Just don't transfer Sch E losses to 1040 line 17 and suspend them like they dont qualify for the $25,000 allowance.(4) Make them part of the NOL. What is best or is there a better option? | |
RoyDaleOne (talk|edits) said: | 16 October 2009 |
| http://www.irs.gov/businesses/small/article/0,,id=146339,00.html
See the part about NOL down the page. | |
RoyDaleOne (talk|edits) said: | 16 October 2009 |
| D&T is not the prior year passive activity loss taken as a deduction in the current year against the same rental property on Schedule E? | |
Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said: | 16 October 2009 |
| Roy: I was assuming in 2008 the poster called the loss passive with no active participation, then in 2009 he had another loss, and since he had sufficient income to use the 2009 loss, he claimed actively participation for 2009. In such a situation the active loss in the second year is not increased by the prior year passive loss that is on Line 3 of 8582. But if there was active participation profit, then the passive loss could be used against it. | |
RoyDaleOne (talk|edits) said: | 16 October 2009 |
| I was blind, and now I can see.
Yes, I played the blind man in a church presentation, so I am just repeat my lines. | |
Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said: | 16 October 2009 |
| From 1987-91, I had to do the passive loss worksheets by hand, not that it helped for a few years later I saw this trap be sprung on a client because the two of us were too clever for our own good. That passive loss sat there six years until she sold the property. | |
Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said: | 16 October 2009 |
| I think that once you get the "special allowance for rental loss with active participation" past the passive loss barrier, it's a rental loss just like any deductible rental loss, i.e. it no longer has any passive character, and should be included in the NOL calculation like any business loss. And as such may be a carryback for two, three, four, or five years, under *today's* NOL rules... | |
Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said: | 16 October 2009 |
| As I read the original post, the client had an approximate AGI of $18,000 without the rental loss. There were no kids or other credits so this would have resulted in a taxable income of $100. They also had a rental loss with active participation of $8,000, so that if taken, their taxable income will be -7,900, but there will be little or no NOL, so that the loss will save them zilch in taxes. This is the problem the poster is trying to solve.
If there were no active participation, the loss would not be deductible this year and could be held for the future. Before someone asks "How did they live on $18,000?" do remember they could be retirees on Social Security and have bank interest, so that their taxable income would be comprised on interest and some taxable Social Security. And as I read the post, there was not a loss of 25K, but rather the poster knew they had the possibility of deducting up to 25K of a loss. It would be nice if we had actual numbers | |
Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said: | 16 October 2009 |
| Here's the pertinent excerpt from RDO's IRS cite, which is about five or six years out of date: "Passive losses allowed in excess of passive income due to the special $25,000 rental real estate allowance can become part of the taxpayer's NOL, which is carried back 3 years or forward 15 years." [Note the IRS's careful use of the phrase "can become...". And their total avoidance of the *election* to carry the NOL only forward.]
If we bring the NOL carry-around info in this cite up to date it becomes "back two or three or four or five and/or forward 20 years, depending on elections made by certain taxpayers." Nothing gets simpler with time, not in the IRC world. Body surfing this morning. Danger to life and limb. Big Nor'easter, huge waves. No PBR til after. | |
| 16 October 2009 | |
| I think we all see the unused $25K loss would become a part of an NOL.
I think the question now is are we allowed to ignore using the up to $25K allowance if the loss would wind up giving little or no tax benefit because of the NOL calculations? I've never looked into that question. | |
Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said: | 16 October 2009 |
| This is the old problem of 'wasted deductions.'
And the only way to ignore the 25K loss allowance is to claim lack of active participation, but this can be hard: "The difference between active participation and material participation is that the former can be satisfied without regular, continuous, and substantial involvement in operations, so long as the taxpayer participates, e.g. in the making of management decisions or arranging for others to provide services in a significant and bona fide sense." This is from the Committee Reports for TRA 86. Obviously the taxpayer, if preparing his own return, can skate by this definition, but for professionals? It's not like back in the days of Section 1034 and the home office, where every person with a home office in prior years had lost exclusive use in the year the house was sold. Remember those days? | |
| 16 October 2009 | |
| That does seem to be a rather harsh result and probably not one intended by Congress when passing TRA 86.
I read quickly through code section 469 and the related regs - don't see anything that calls this allowance elective. | |
Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said: | 16 October 2009 |
| I'm starting to think that the MFS route might be a viable choice. However, that depends so much on the real numbers, which we don't have. D&T, where did you get the $18,000 and $8,000 numbers or were you speculating...? | |
| 16 October 2009 | |
| Thanks for all the input. The actual numbers are by line (8a) 9089 (9a) 131 (12) 2,625 (13) 17,455 (17) -18000(mainly depreciation) and line (40) 28,085 and (42) 10,500. Would material participation preserve the benefit of ignoring the allowance?. No one has commented on the married filing separately, but living together disqualification angle.Is it correct that using the NOL method would for the most part preserve the allowance so long as AGI was not greater than line 40. Again thanks everyone. | |
Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said: | 16 October 2009 |
| Harry: I was building an example to highlight the problem
Material participation is not the standard for rentals but rather for a trade or business. "...interests in rental activities are treated as passive whether or not the taxpayer materially participates." (IBID) Congress then went on to throw the taxpayer a bone with the active participation rule, setting the AGI limit that has not changed since 1987!!!!!! | |
Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said: | 16 October 2009 |
| Does the dependent qualify for the child credit?
Probably doesn't matter: your NOLD carryback would be 8971, assuming all Sch A is non-business deductions and the Capital gain is non-business. Compare this to the carryforward of the 18,000 loss, if possible. It's a no brainer to want to carry the loss forward. But if you file separately, the unused rental loss is passive, not active participation.
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Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said: | 16 October 2009 |
| But I hadn't done my usually diligent advance fact gathering homework.
The taxpayer has to have lived with the spousal unit during the year to be allowed to use *zero* of this loss. Facts not in evidence... From Section 469: Married individuals filing separately (A) In general Except as provided in subparagraph (B), in the case of any married individual filing a separate return, this subsection shall be applied by substituting - (i) "$12,500" for "$25,000" each place it appears, (ii) "$50,000" for "$100,000" in paragraph (3)(A), and (iii) "$100,000" for "$200,000" in paragraph (3)(B). Taxpayers not living apart This subsection shall not apply to a taxpayer who - (i) is a married individual filing a separate return for any taxable year, and (ii) does not live apart from his spouse at all times during such taxable year. | |
RoyDaleOne (talk|edits) said: | 16 October 2009 |
| And what happens to SS benefits on MFS returns? | |
Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said: | 16 October 2009 |
| "And what happens to SS benefits...?"
Well, if you don't have any, it probably doesn't matter what happens to them. | |
RoyDaleOne (talk|edits) said: | 17 October 2009 |
| True, Harry, D&T was wool-gathering and I just was reminding him to do some more wool-gathering. | |
Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said: | 17 October 2009 |
| Thanks, Roy. Obviously my example is not cut and dry, especially if by filing separately Social Security were to be taxed. In my little example, it might depend on how investment accounts were titled, so that if in one name, most of the income on a separate return would fall on that person.
Now that we have real numbers, there is no mention of SS and that can be put to rest. As I said above, they would want to preserve the 18K loss over the smaller NOL carryback, but the ways to do so bring forth many disadvantages also. | |
Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said: | 17 October 2009 |
| "...the ways to do so" might bring with them some disadvantages which would have to be weighed as the cost of being allowed to preserve and suspend the larger loss. That's why we're the highly-compensated professionals that know how to operate the "what if?" machines!! | |


