Discussion:Trust distribution
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Discussion Forum Index --> Tax Questions --> Trust distribution
| 5 January 2007 | |
| How does one show dni on income that is subject to a tax lien? | |
| 5 January 2007 | |
| Depends on whether the tax and/or interest being repaid is deductible against income. | |
| 5 January 2007 | |
| I will be more specific in my question. The facts are as follows:
A revocable trust was estabalished in 1985. The trustors were named as trustees. I was named as successor trustee in the event of the husband's death. Upon the husband's death in 1986, the trust was divided into three trusts. I separated the trust assets between the survivors,the exemption and the marital trusts. The wife took distribution of the survivors and I took possesion of the exemption and the marital. So far pretty typical story! From 1986 until September 2004, I distributed the income from both the exemption and marital trusts to the wife. To make matters a little more complex, I also distributed some principal from the marital trust from April 2001 to June 2004 when the income was not sufficient for the wife to "maintain the same standard of living". The principal distribution was made at my sole discretion. the wife had no right to demand principal. On October 29, 2004, I received a levy from the Internal Revenue Service for all property owed to the income beneficiary. I took the position that the only "property owned by the income beneficiary was earned income and did not include the principal. I did not honor their claim for the principal. Whether the lien includes princpal as well as income is a very involved case and is not the subject of my question. Hopefuly, the Service will sue me and the courts will decide. At that time, I will do as the Judge decides. Until then, I continue to hold on to the assets. For some reason, The IRS has not taken any aggressive action to collect the lien. From the date of the lien through the end of 2004, there was no taxable income and thererfor none required to be distributed. Easy so far! The wife died in early 2005. There was some net income during the portion 2005 that she was alive and I offered to distribute it to the IRS. They told me to hold on to it until we settled the case. I did prepare a K-1 for the income and mailed it to her accountant who pepared her final 1040 showing the income. I did not distribute any money. The Trust provisions require me to distribute the income to her daughter after the wife's death, but I elected not to as the lien was still in effect. 2006 showed a healty income and this brings me to the question..... Who gets the K-1? If I send it to the daughter how can she pay the tax as she has not received any money due to the lien. Is the money still due the wife? Should I send her estate the K-1? Or should I pay the tax as trustee? Since her estate does not have any money as the IRS took all of her assets they could to partially satisy the lien, I would prefer to take this action. Any tax due would have to be written off. Can I send her estate the K-1 or must I send it to her daughter? Or must I send it to myself as trustee? CONFUSING? You bet. Can you help? | |
| 5 January 2007 | |
| I'm lost. Did this lien result from spouse's failure to file income tax returns? Lot of who is minding the store here and absent specific language in the trust document the fiduciary has significant exposure. Depending on state law, discretionary payments of principal can open a door for creditors. Seek professional help. | |
| 5 January 2007 | |
| Thank you for your reading my question. I am lost as well. For the record, the lien did result from her failure to file as well as failure to report her husbands IRA when she cashed it in after his death.
The question about the discretionary payments opening the door to the IRS will be settled by the Court when I am sued. My question was about the 2006 income and who is entitled to it. The liability is hers - not the Trusts. I was hoping for a easy answer where none is available. As to seeking "professional help", so far three attorneys have given me three different answers. One said the K-1 goes to the wife, one said the K-1 goes to the daughter and one said the Trust should pay any tax due. Barring anything specific in the regulations, I intend to send the K-1 to the wife's estate. They gave me equally different answers as to whether or not the principal belongs to the wife (and therefore the IRS takes it due to the lien). They, of course, all wanted $10,000 reatainer to do more research on the matter. Dennis, Thanks for you responding. | |
| 5 January 2007 | |
| Okay. Assuming standard language, the marital trust stops paying income distributions to spouse on death. There should be language in the document as to what happens next. The credit shelter trust should have identical language. It is doubtful that spouse's estate should get a k-1 reflecting anything more than required undistriuted income up to date of death. Post death distributions to residual beneficiaries are similarly governed by the trust document. If the documents require termination on death of spouse and you feel you can't comply at least see if you can distribute income to the residual beneficiaries. A competent attorney may charge you more than the $10,000 but he will not need to do research. You need professional help on several levels and you seem to have no idea how badly you have screwed up. | |
| 5 January 2007 | |
| One of my clients has had the same experience with "professional help". Three law firms failed to address the deduction of legal fees
paid by the beneficiaries. I vote the 2006 K-1 should go to the daughter. I also vote that the principal and the income after the wife's death, now held by the trust, belongs to the daughter and is not subject to the lien. I would not distribute any of the principal until a solution is found/litgated. | |
| 5 January 2007 | |
| The daughter can get a K-1 only if the trust language requires distribution (doubtful) or the money is actually paid. Note you have 65 days from the end of the year. Sec. 663(b) As far as trust principal is concerned, daughter is entitled only to what is left after creditors have been satisfied. | |
| 5 January 2007 | |
| Adeanlynn, is the income in question only from the marital trust assets? I agree w/ Dennis, the trust instrument should direct what happens to the marital trust assets after surviving spouse's death. The way you describe the marital trust, it sounds like the husband would have directed the remainder to go to someone other than surviving spouse's estate. If that's the case, wouldn't the post-death income follow? (I don't know the answer). I don't know why there's even a question about the income from the "exemption trust" b/c the principal shouldn't even included in the surviving spouse's estate upon her death. | |
| 5 January 2007 | |
Let us put this to bed.
I resent Dennis' comments that I have screwed up. He failed to take into consideration that I have consulted with three attorneys and several fellow CPAs. Their responses have been in conflict with each other. I have already spent over $15,000 in fees to try to resolve this matter so Dennis' comments that I have not requested help is in error. The time spent so far was related to the ability of the IRS to attach the principal and a little on the K -1 issue. I was using this WEB page to get some ideas on the K- 1 issue. The main issue of principal will have to wait until the courts take a look at it. Bbla, the Trust does require that the principal has to be distributed to daughter, but I am prevented by the lien. Bbla would send the K- 1 should go to the daughter, but I should not do this as she did not receive the distribution yet would have to pay tax on it. I do feel that the lien is transferrable to the assets and therefore I can not distribute any money to the daughter. This is a real catch 22. Thank you both for your comments. It has only convinced me that this is not a "black or white" question and will only be resolved by a judge. Enjoy your tax season | |
| 5 January 2007 | |
| Adeanlynn I am sorry if my words seem harsh. You say you are waiting to be sued and yet the lien is in place. I doubt you can do anything but pay income tax at the trust level until this is resolved. I am not going to venture a guess on the specifics, but there is competent help out there for you and as trustee it is your job to find it. You do not have to wait. You can bring an action. | |
| 6 January 2007 | |
| Bengoshi, thanks for your input. The exemption has already been distributed to the remainderman ( the daughter). It was covered by the lien, but I was able to convince the IRS to release the lien on the exemption trust assets. At present, only the marital trust assets are covered by the lien. This includes the "property owned by the income beneficiary (the wife). The question remains....Does the principal belong to the deceased wife or to her daughter. This will be determined by a judge once the Service decides to take me to court. I have no right to sue the IRS unless I pay the tax first. This has been confirmed by all of the experts that I have talked to. What an interesting case.
Dennis, How can I bring an action? The three attorneys (all well thought of) indicate that I have no standing to force the IRS to do anything. I must wait for the Service to sue me for collection. Again, I was not asking for help on the issue of who owns the trust assets. My question was how to report the 2006 income. This thread could go on and on so I will say thank you again for all of your input. I will promise all that once I hear from the Service I will let you know. Is there a way I can bring Dennis, Bbla and Bengoshi up to date withour going through the question and answer routine. That is can I somehow limit my remarks to you three good people. Is it appropriate to let you know by e-mail? My e-mail is dean@greatbeerco.com. I am a co-founder and president of a micro brewery in Los Angeles. I can always drink my beer when the IRS is getting too difficult. | |
| 6 January 2007 | |
| Additional information is always helpful. Perhaps Steve Kassel will weigh in on this. Apparently from what you are saying, you distributed principal in a year subsequent to the IRS's original claim. You might consider restructuring trust assets to produce non-taxable or deferred income. | |
| 6 January 2007 | |
| haha...it must be great being the owner of your very own brewery! I think a lot of the members here would like to hear the outcome, even though they haven't posted. It provides good CPE for us.
I wonder if you could somehow distinguish the "principal" of the marital trust which is subject to the lien from the post-death "income" which may or may not be subject...? Unless that income gets allocated to the marital trust principal too? | |
| 10 January 2007 | |
| I promised a follow up on my case. Here it is.
The collection agent called me and told me that their attorneys are still undecided on the applicability on their lien and agree with me that is should be resolved in court. He also agreed that he did not have the power to negotiate, but his boss did and recommended we get together in the next six to eight weeks to talk. They apparently are in no hurry to settle this issue. It has been going on for nearly two years. I reminded him that I had income from the Trust and asked again if he wanted the money. He said that he did not as a judge may misinterpret that action to the Service's disadvantage. I told him that I would prepare a K-1 for the estate of the income beneficiary. He agreed that that made sense to him. This would mean that since the estate does not have any money, he would have to add it to the lien and we would have to postpone the court action even longer....What a mess. Will continue to keep you informed. | |
| 10 January 2007 | |
| The IRS has given you incorrect information. A K-1 will be issued to the decedent for income that was required to be distributed up to date of death. Any other K-1's will depend on the wording of the trust document. If there is no requirement to distribute and no actual distributions, tax will be paid at the trust level. It would be extremely unusual for what is apparently a QTIP trust to benefit the estate of the surviving spouse to any extent other than undistributed income. The issue appears exclusively whether the trust has an obligation to pay her debts. | |
| 10 January 2007 | |
| Thank you Dennis, but I have no opinion on this matter. Trust issues are beyond my expertise and I do not tread into areas about which I am not terribly knowledgeable. One tends to stay out of trouble that way. | |
| 9 February 2007 | |
| Again, as promised, I am posting an update on my case.
The IRS legal staff has agreed to my recommendation to send the K-I to the decedent's estate as oppossed to me paying the tax as trustee. He told me that he did not know how the courts would rule, but this was a simple solution and was minor compared with the larger issue as to if the Service had the right to the principal of the marital trust. Apparently when under negotiation prior to going to court, the Service has a lot of discretion in interpreting law. The collection agent will contact me in a few weeks to set up a meeting with me, the income beneficiary, him, and his boss for settlement discussions on the whole issue of lien rights as to the trust principal. Will keep everyone informed. Or -- Is this forum appropriate for my case? Is it only for questions and not for results? | |
| 9 February 2007 | |
| All I can tell you is that I like the IRS recommendation not one bit. It would seem to me that by issuing a K-1 to the estate you are determining that the estate has the right to that income (to the advantage of the IRS and the disadvantage of the residual beneficiaries of the trust). I hope you are not exposing yourself to liability. | |
| 11 February 2007 | |
| Thank you for your concern. I accept the fact that the IRS has the right to income. The income beneficiary has no right to the income as long as the levy includes the income on Trust assets. I can not distribute income to the income beneficiary or I could be held responsible by the IRS for not only the amount of distribution but penalties as well. I believe it wrong to send a K-1 to the income beneficiary without receiving cash to pay the tax. This is really a catch 22 situation.
Dennis, your responses to my posts are appreciated. I may not agree with them, but do not take offense to your comments. Hopefully, this case will be resolved soon and we will both learn from the experience. | |
| 11 February 2007 | |
| Adeanlynn: The only difference in tax liability between paying the tax for the Estate of deceased spouse and paying the tax for the trust is a $500 difference in exemption. The estate has no money to pay so there will be interest and penalties. The trust has the money to pay. If the income beneficiary has no problem with what you are doing you might as well concede to what the IRS wants and get it over with, otherwise the income beneficiary actually has a greater right to hold you responsible than the IRS. You have a trust that was prevented from making required distributions. Do consider the option of paying tax at the trust level. | |
| 28 February 2007 | |
I finally held my meeting with the Senior IRS Council regarding my trust levy. We had a cordial discussion and he informed me that he was relying on a California probate code for the right for the Service to invade principal. He gave me the specific code section. I now had a link to understand their position.
I disagreed with his interpreation and asked for another meeting after I obtained my own council to review the probate code that the IRS was relying upon. I talked to an ex-IRS attorney with experience in this area. He will review and get back to me with his thoughts. Hopefully, this whole issue will go away as it is crucial that estate plans can be made with some assurance that the QTIP trusts can operate as our clients want --the assets go to their children not to the spouses creditors. The issue regarding the income from the subject principal and who was to receive the K-1 was not resolved. I will probably pay the tax myself as trustee as any other option only extends the disagreement with the service. | |
| 28 February 2007 | |
| Well done. To recap, decedent most likely had a right to income up to date of death. It is proper to issue a K-1 for that amount and that money belongs to the IRS. Tax on the balance is paid at the trust level because you were prevented from making distributions. This money belongs to the beneficiaries. (Unless the IRS prevails) | |
| 16 March 2007 | |
| This may be off topic slightly, but I am looking for help regarding a distribution from a trust upon death to another trust set up for benefit of a still living relative but under trustee ship of another person. Are there tax consequences for the beneficiary of the second trust on money distributed?
Thanks K12meter | |
| 16 March 2007 | |
| This will probably be a trapping distribution, carrying income on a K-1 from the first trusst but for accounting purpose recognized as corpus by the second. | |
| 27 March 2007 | |
| I would like to ask whether K-1s are required in 2006 when a trust with 20 distinct beneficiaries has capital gains income in 2005 of approximately $5M after selling the trust's only asset (a family vacation cottage) decides to pay tax at the trust level in 2005 as the resulting cash need not be distributed per the trust. The after-tax cash ended up getting distributed in early 2006 pursuant to a court stipulation, but otherwise neither the trust document nor local law (Mass) required the funds to be distributed.
I am one of the beneficiaries and am wondering why I didn't get a K-1 for the 2005 capital gains income distributed in early 2006. The accountant the trustee hired gave us just last month a K-1 reflecting some treasury bill interest income on undistributed trust cash earned in 2006 along with an amount for each beneficiary's "share of the distributable AMT income." Nothing was actually distributed with respect to this 2006 interest income. My question is if we received a K-1 for undistributed 2006 interest income, why didn't we get a K-1 for the 2005 capital gains that were subsequently distributed in early 2006 pursuant to the stipulation? The stipulation itself is only a couple of sentences long and doesn't answer the question. The trustee is shielding the accountant from us and won't answer the question. The rest of the trust beneficiaries are assuming no harm no foul - didn't get a K-1, don't need to report the big distribution. I'm thinking we should report but then explain the tax was already paid by the trust. Thanks for the help. Dave | |
| 27 March 2007 | |
| Just got off the phone with the IRS. They agreed that none of the principal is subject to the levy. Now on to the income. This will be interesting as for part of the levy period, the principal was invested in an annuity and income from an annuity is not easy to determine. Stay tuned. | |
Heirapparent (talk|edits) said: | 27 March 2007 |
| For DaveCRT,
I can't shed much light on the 2006 issue without more facts (other than to say that as a beneficiary of the trust you probably are entitled to an accounting of its assets, income and expenses and that accounting might help you understand the tax issues better). I would suggest that you ask for copies of the trust's 2005 and 2006 1041s for a start; you may find that the 2006 interest income was distributed at the same time that the cottage proceeds were distributed or that the 2006 expenses of the trust exceeded its 2006 income and that's why you didn't get extra cash in 2006. I may be able to help on the 2005 question, however. In a nutshell, your post says the trust paid the taxes on whatever taxable income the trust had during 2005. As a consequence, you wouldn't get a K-1 for the 2005 income because when you received your share of the sale proceeds they already had been taxed and what you received was a share of the trust principal and not taxable income. If the trust documents allowed it, the trust could have passed the proceeds to all the beneficiaries, given them K-1s for the gain portion of the proceeds (price-expenses-basis) and let all of you pay tax on the gain, but it apparently paid the tax itself; you're off the hook, no additional explanations to the IRS necessary (the Trust's 2005 and 2006 1041s already explained it to them). On a side note: That must be one really amazing "cottage" (or it was in the trust for a very long time), if the trust had a capital gain of $5 million when it sold the property. For example, if this is a post-mortem trust set up when the owner of the cottage died, then when the trust received the cottage, it would have received it with a stepped up basis (normally the market value of the property on the date of the owner's death). The taxable gain on the cottage sale would have been the sum of the sale price less sale expenses less the value of the cottage on the date of the owner's death. Unless there was a long delay or a really hot real estate market between the owner's death and the date the property was sold, there was probably very little capital gain to tax and perhaps even a loss. For example, If the value of the cottage was $5 million when the owner died, there would only be taxable gain to the extent the net sale price of the cottage (after subtracting broker's commissions, taxes, settlement costs, etc.) exceeded $5 million. | |
| 8 August 2007 | |
| I agree with Dennis' comment that the estate should not get a K-1 for income from the trust in Andelynn's discussion on the assumption that the estate had no right to any income after the death of that beneficiary (the wife). I also agree with Dennis' conclusion that by issuing such a K-1 to the estate, it would make that amount of income subject to the levy for the taxes owed by the decedent wife. I further agree with Dennis that if the income isn't paid out to another income beneficiary (or required to be), that the tax on the income would be paid at the trust level. | |


