Discussion:The employer failed to deduct 8.5 year FICA and after employee reported employer threatened to input the owed FICA as W2 wages of 2007

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Discussion Forum Index --> Advanced Tax Questions --> The employer failed to deduct 8.5 year FICA and after employee reported employer threatened to input the owed FICA as W2 wages of 2007
Discussion Forum Index --> Tax Questions --> The employer failed to deduct 8.5 year FICA and after employee reported employer threatened to input the owed FICA as W2 wages of 2007

Gq (talk|edits) said:

10 December 2007
Hi, everyone here,

I have a client that is running into a bad situation that his (a public traded IT contract house) employer did not pay his FICA since 1999 until middle 2006 he found the issue through the yearly report from social security report(Because the SSA report voided his earning history list in the report, and visited SSA office and showed the copy.). He reported it to his employer. But his employer started to cut the FICA from his paycheck only from January, 2007 since they told him that starting to in the middle of 2006 would raise the red flag immediately.

The thing is that the total amount summed up is a big number up to $40,000, which his employer did not deduct from his paycheck through those years. He requested all the time for a discussion and negotiation on the solution. But his employer refused his requests. Now his employer threatened him to add the sum as his this year's W2 wages and force him to pay the tax for it since they prepared a so-called promissory note to ask him to sign to pay them back each week over $200 for 200 weeks and he rejected to sign it without negotiation.

The fact is that FICA tax is the employer responsibility to deduct it from each of his paychecks. It has been their mistakes year after year or bad accounting practice or failure to follow the auditing practice to find it out their mistake. How do they file for SEC report as a public trade company? How is their annual auditing practiced? I know contract house always does its best to squeeze money from contracting employees. my client deserves a negotiation or fair solution. But they simply rejected his requests. Did they deserve take any hit of their mistakes of many years?

I did want to support to fight about it. Does any one have tips or knows a good attorney to help me? Does anyone think the inputting as W2 wages is a acceptable option?

Thanks, gq

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

December 10, 2007
Well, you MAY be jumping to the wrong conclusion without more digging. Suppose the company and your client agreed that he was an independent contractor? I presume that W2's were never issued, so how did your guy report the income? If the W2's were issued, not his problem. If not, then your guy was self employed. Did he just dump his income on line 7 and not do a Sch. C/SE? You need more info.

Irsfixer (talk|edits) said:

10 December 2007
Your client does not exactly have clean hands. He benefited from years of not paying FICA/Medicare and now wants all the benefits of paying it. He knew it was not being taken out a long time ago (like his first check). I am not sympathetic to your client at all. The employer may well bear some responsibility, but make sure you get all the facts before incurring a lot of professional fees.

Gq (talk|edits) said:

10 December 2007
Thanks for the commants. But my client has been issued with W2s for those years from his employer. True he did retain more than he normally would. But he was a newbie to the laws, only got to know this situation after he spotted an earning history in the SSA report was voided while the list of the years has been there before. He could directly report to IRS and get his employer under fire if he knew the law ahead.

From the thought that employer should take the hit of what the year-after-year mistakes they made as a public trade company, how have they performed the annual auditing? From some point, if they caught it in the end of the first year, my client could just easily got his part straight a lot earlier than now.

For now, I believe the negotiation b/w the two sides is a reasonable thing to do. But even for this the employer rejected it, which is beyond the stories I read this forum.

Please shed more insight. Thanks gq

GregC8579 (talk|edits) said:

10 December 2007
I am a little confused. Your client received W-2's for the years in question. Did the corporation withhold less than is required by law, or did they simply fail to remit the properly withheld taxes to the government?

Bottom Line (talk|edits) said:

10 December 2007
Something's still not adding up. If he was issued a W-2 and if what you say is true, at some point LONG before the eight years that you mention the company would have received a letter from the SSA about a mis-match. Ask your client for the last couple of year's W-2's and some pay stubs.

Don't get bogged down that this is a publicly traded company. Annual audits only do sampling and look at procedures. They have a dollar amount that is considered material (usually at least $1 million) and anything under that is frequently not caught. More than one company has failed after receiving an unqualified opinion.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

December 10, 2007
Exactly. Now make it clear what that W2 looks like. Was SS withheld? If so, again, not his problem. He takes his W2's to SSA and has them post the earnings and go after employer. Or do you have W2's with gross wages only? The fact that SSA never posted the earnings is ominous. It tells me that the corp never filed their payroll tax filings, or maybe paid over the money. Keep talking.

Jdugancpa (talk|edits) said:

10 December 2007
They'll be quite surprised to learn that! http://www.ey.com/global/content.nsf/International/Home

Possibly you are referring to Arthur Anderson & Enron??

Skasselea (talk|edits) said:

10 December 2007
You can have a W-2 with Social Security or Medicare NOT being withheld. For example, household employees don't have to have it withheld. So, the IRS wouldn't be alerted to a problem just because the employer isn't withholding. My concern is that the employer is choosing to do this for a large number of employees. Is this an isolated problem for a single employee or is this a problem where the employer is in serious breach of the law?

Gq (talk|edits) said:

10 December 2007
Sorry to run on the facts to have caused the confusion.

My client received the W2s of those years with the federal and state tax deducted properly while FICA box left empty for those years. No clue as of how the employer withheld or filed their tax to government.

My client got the annual SSA report like all of us. He noticed after some year 2005 suddenly the previous years' earning lists were voided as no earning at all, and he called the SSA local office and went to there and asked why there were contridictory list of the same previous years' earnings. And he was told that that's was error and correction was done and he need to talk his employer if FICA was paid. And he did talk to his employer which took the employer long time to figure it out what's going on till Sept 2006. Then employer asked him to sign the promissary note that deducts 200 dollars each week, and he rejected to sign without negotiation. Again it come to now that they threatened to input the amount of his part as W2 wages of 2007.

He got paid weekly in paycheck.

Gq (talk|edits) said:

10 December 2007
Again,

The so-called promissary note that employer issued called him 'employee. That's why they started from 01/2007 to deduct FICA for him.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

December 10, 2007
Well, it sucks and you/he won't like this, but it's his money. It should have been withheld from him and paid over. It wasn't. Now he gets to pay it. I agree with the corp, if it's paid to him now to pay over, it's added taxable income. Like I said, sucks, but he did have all that money all those years, not that it matters much now I suppose.

GregC8579 (talk|edits) said:

10 December 2007
This is not really an area I am familiar with, so I am just brainstorming here. As JR said earlier, if the FICA taxes were withheld and the company did not remit them, its not the client's problem. If the client was a "special" employee of the type Skasselea referred too, the wages earned should have been subject to SE, correct? In that case the client is on the hook for those taxes and should work out a payment arrangement with the Feds. But to have the employer pay it and include the money in gross income will only add to his tax bill. If he pays it himself, at least he can avoid being taxed on the payments. Of course, the matter should be investigated further to make sure the client is really the one that owes the tax and the corporation is not acting illegally, as Skasselea also pointed out.

Bottom Line (talk|edits) said:

10 December 2007
Comment removed to delete name of an accounting firm which had been mentioned in a prior post.

Gq (talk|edits) said:

10 December 2007
The employee is the regular "employee" that his FICA supposed to be deducted by his employer. But now his employer attempted to pay IRS first and then add the sum to his wages, which sounds not bad. Since the employer cannot just tranfer the mount to him as W2 wages without paying IRS first by law employer is on the hook.

Am I right?

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

10 December 2007
I don't see how the employer can have it both ways: They failed to withhold SS from wages, but he would owe the money. Apparently they are going to pay those monies to the IRS and should issue corrected W-2s for those years.
At the same time your client should be willing to sign a note agreeing to repay this sum over a period of time, but this should not be income to him this year. It can only be income if he leaves employment and the employer forgives the note and does not prosecute him for the balance due.  The only thing to negotiate is any interest due on the note.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

December 10, 2007
Yep, what DT said.

Bottom Line (talk|edits) said:

10 December 2007
I don't understand how this could happen to only this one employee. Did it happen to any of his co-workers?

Gq (talk|edits) said:

10 December 2007
Thanks a lot for insights of DT and all of you.

He is still working for the employer currently. He can quit the job if it is for a better result.

His employer gave the note that requires the weekly $200 deduction for 220 weeks from his paycheck or from his bank if he quits the job with the employer, which is two harsh. He then has been asking for the negotiation with his employer, but his employer has refused al the time.

Right now, the employer sent email to him to threaten that:

"Accordingly, if we do not have the signed paperwork from you by 12/14, the money will be imputed as payment of wages and included in his total taxable income for 2007. Please understand that this is not up for negotiation."

What is the worse sequence of this? Is it worth going to seek attorney's assistance? Or, just take the employer's option to let it be added as wages if the additional tax is less than the total amount of what he supposed to pay?

CrowJD (talk|edits) said:

10 December 2007
I think it might be worth sitting down with a labor lawyer. Here's an association with a lawyer finder http://www.nela.org/NELA/ The lawyer would be able to slow all this down so the facts could be sorted through. I don't think your client should cave into pressure or sign anything.

Bottom Line (talk|edits) said:

10 December 2007
Excellent suggestion CrowJD

San Diego (talk|edits) said:

11 December 2007
First, may I suggest to Gq to refer this client to another firm or attorney that can handle this situation as it sounds like you cannot (not trying to be mean).

Second, this is my theory on what is going on. It sounds like the employer wants the employee to pay his portion of the taxes through a structured repayment plan. If the employee does not agree to this by 12/14/2007, the employer will pay the employee the ER share of the taxes and report it as income to the EE (subject to SE).

If this is the case, I would suggest your client agree to the repayment. Otherwise he will have eight years worth of returns in which he should have paid FICA/Medicare.

San Diego (talk|edits) said:

11 December 2007
Might want to delete that comment of E&Y, they could consider it libel.

Bottom Line (talk|edits) said:

11 December 2007
Good suggestion. I'll amend.

Natalie (talk|edits) said:

December 11, 2007
If the employer pays the employee portion of FICA/medicare on behalf of the employee, they are required to report those taxes as compensation. If the taxes are merely deducted as advances, then they would not be considered additional compensation.


My question is, what about amended payroll returns?

CrowJD (talk|edits) said:

11 December 2007
If it's "not up for negotiation", why do they find it necessary for your client to sign anything; why not just go ahead and act? See the other comments here; and your client may want to check the website I gave for a referral, or find a good all around lawyer in town to slow this down for some fact finding. When people are made to feel pressured to sign things, the red flags go up.

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

11 December 2007
Natalie amplifies one point I made: if your client's employer is paying the back FICA, whether or not your client repays it, corrected W-2 forms must be issued and the employer must send these to Social Security so your client gets credit for these wages. This would be so even if your client fails to repay the amount and is taxed on the amount.

Note that if the employer files 941c with his current quarter, there would be no interest charged to my knowledge. The basic mechanics of the form do not call for this.

Boomerblau (talk|edits) said:

11 December 2007
First post - new to the board, but thought I'd supplement since my normal board is going down for maintenance this week.

Is this a statuatory employee? Is the W-2 box checked showing as such?

In you RIA federal Tax Handbook, check out Paragraph 3020. The company has the responsibility to withhold, and they are the ones that will be hit with the penalties.

In this case, which is better for the client? He can repay the SS that wasn't withheld, or have it imputed. So he pays $200 a week, or he pays tax on the equivilent amount. My recommendation is to sign and get it over with. If he is not going to continue with the company, he can also fill out a worker classification request which will bring the IRS to his former employer's door (if they have time).

Boomerblau (talk|edits) said:

11 December 2007
First post - new to the board, but thought I'd supplement since my normal board is going down for maintenance this week.

Is this a statuatory employee? Is the W-2 box checked showing as such?

In you RIA federal Tax Handbook, check out Paragraph 3020. The company has the responsibility to withhold, and they are the ones that will be hit with the penalties.

In this case, which is better for the client? He can repay the SS that wasn't withheld, or have it imputed. So he pays $200 a week, or he pays tax on the equivilent amount. My recommendation is to sign and get it over with. If he is not going to continue with the company, he can also fill out a worker classification request which will bring the IRS to his former employer's door (if they have time).

Actionbsns (talk|edits) said:

11 December 2007
Just curious here, why hasn't anyone mention to GQ that he/she complete his/her profile? Is everyone sure this isn't another homework question?

Blrgcpa (talk|edits) said:

11 December 2007
The EE should pay his portion of the tax directly to the IRS. The ER should be paying his portion to the IRS.

Inagpurwala (talk|edits) said:

11 December 2007
And did this so called client filed tax returns for all those years?

He or his tax return preparer should have noticed that why there is no SS amount withheld. I do not understand why this person waited for such a long time. I think "GQ" is not providing the full/correct story. And as Actionbsns has mentioned, this fellow has not fill out profile, so we do not know who this person reall is!Inagpurwala 17:57, 11 December 2007 (CST)

Szptax (talk|edits) said:

20 March 2008
similar situation - employer failed to withhold FICA tax - employee alerted employer as soon as it was discovered (a few months, not years). Employer wanted a note for repayment which was verbally discussed, but employee was fired prior to the note being established. (The firing was from an unrelated matter that I do not want to go into.) What happens now? FYI -the withholding was corrected & remaining employee is blaming the fired employee (a cya move), but again another matter

Natalie (talk|edits) said:

March 21, 2008
Szp, from the employee perspective, all is well? Employer is out the money? In this case it sounds like the employer paid the tax on behalf of the employee and therefore the amount is required to be reported as compensation.

RoyDaleOne (talk|edits) said:

21 March 2008
Wow, I see a lot issues, first the employee portion of the FICA tax is his to pay, however, if the liability to arose along time ago the employer may by barred by a statute of limitations to collect the over payment of salary to the employee for some portion of the time. This is a labor law issue relative to the relationship between the employee and the employer concerning any deductions from his current pay for items not related to the current pay period. The amount is large enough and the "reduced" social security benefits as a result of the situation to warrant the use of an attorney to protect the clients rights. Also, there is the issue of future employment.

Natalie (talk|edits) said:

March 21, 2008
Roy, I guess you're answering the question at the top? I edited my post to make it clear I was answering Szp.

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