Discussion:Preparer Penalty Issue

From TaxAlmanac, A Free Online Resource
Note: You are using this website at your own risk, subject to our Disclaimer and Website Use and Contribution Terms.

From TaxAlmanac

Jump to: navigation, search

Discussion Forum Index --> Basic Tax Questions --> Preparer Penalty Issue
Discussion Forum Index --> Tax Questions --> Preparer Penalty Issue

Msmith7305 (talk|edits) said:

14 January 2008
Hey Guys-

New 1120 clients. There are 2 1120 insurance companies. Both owned by same 3 equal shareholders. One is a property/casualty agency and everyone is paid as employee (including shareholders). Second (the problem area) is a life insurance agency. The 3 shareholders are paid as 1099 independent contractors.

Any advice as to how this should be handled? Assume that they will not back down and retroactively change compensation to wages. Is putting the shareholder comp as such on the return enough disclosure to avoid preparer penalties, or do you have to state that they were not treated as employees and bring on the audit police?

They have prepared the return like that for years with no questions being asked. Therefore, they see no reason to change now.

TxSrv (talk|edits) said:

14 January 2008
At the risk of oversimplifying things, is disclosure on treatment which is clearly incorrect safe harbor for any sanction? Don't think so, so is the 1099 treatment here rather wrong? The S Corp cases say it is, namely that corp officers are employees period.

Msmith7305 (talk|edits) said:

14 January 2008
TxSrv-

I guess that is the issue. As far as the preparer is concerned I believe full disclosure (via Form 8275) would absolve the preparer from any sanction. After all, the preparer would only be reporting what actually did happen. IRS, in effect, would be put on notice that things aren't quite right.

If the 1120 shows an entry on the Officer's Compensation line, but no taxes deducted (such as would be for payroll taxes) does that constitute adequate disclosure to the IRS that SALARIES were not paid and preclude the use of Form 8275?

Pegoo (talk|edits) said:

14 January 2008
Does the insurance agency have other employees? Is it just a shell collecting commission from sales of the other SCORP by referring to an insurance agent?

CrowJD (talk|edits) said:

14 January 2008
This may be at the risk of oversimplifying things also, but I'd take a good look at TxSrv's first sentence. The IRS does not see your function as "reporting what actually did happen", they will see it was taking a position on a return. It seems to me that the use of 8275 in the way that you anticipate possibily doing would defeat the whole purpose of the law. 8275 would imply that you made a good faith effort to ascertain the law/facts in question, but made a disclosure because it ended up somewhere between 50-51% i.e. right on the line. That's my opinion.

Msmith7305 (talk|edits) said:

14 January 2008
Pegoo-

First, these are not S Corps. They are C Corps.

The officer/shareholders in the life ins corp are the only persons receiving compensation other than a few independent agents not associated legally to the corp. All of the employees are with the Prop/Casualty insurance corp and only deal with that side of the business.

In other words, the Prop/Casualty corp is not doing the life insurance work and sending the commissions to the life ins corp.

RayR (talk|edits) said:

14 January 2008
I believe there is also a duty to inform the taxpayer that the position they have taken is wrong or questionable and the possible penalties Then documents it. At least thats the way I understand Notice 2008-13

Msmith7305 (talk|edits) said:

14 January 2008
RayR-

Question then becomes:

What do I need to do in order to avoid any preparer penalties whatsoever in this situation? Flat out disclose to IRS that shareholders are not being treated as employees as I believe them to be? If so, on Form 8275? Form 8275-R as a regulation disclosure?

OR, just continue (as has been done in the past) to show the amounts they were 1099ed for as Officer Compensation on line 12 of 1120? They have also filled in Schedule E with each shareholder's name, ID#, % of time, and compensation amount. There is NOT, however, any deduction on the return for payroll taxes. There have never been any quarterly payroll tax return filings. In short, anyone picking up the return would see an entry for Officer Compensation, BUT, they would not find a payroll tax deduction you would expect when someone is treated as an employee.

Thanks for all the replies. Keep 'em coming!

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

14 January 2008
My understanding is that the preparer has to believe he has a 'reasonable basis' for taking a position on a return, but is not sure he has a better than 50-50 chance of prevailing, and in this situation he must advise the client that reporting standards for the professionals are stricter than for taxpayers, document this, and then demonstrate that the taxpayer had substantial authority for this position.

In other words, if the professional found 2 of 5 cases supported the taxpayer in analagous situations, he would have had substantial authority under old standards, but now under MLT, he does not but the taxpayer would.

I am taking the above from this week's Kiplinger Report.

If true, this sounds a far cry from what is happening here.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

January 14, 2008
Just chatting with a buddy on this. We're getting shoved into a very difficult position, where we become the cops. I agree with TxSrv, no option, they must be employees. To merely disclose it doesn't accomplish anything. On audit, would you have any hope of prevailing? No. So you're put in a position of either forcing the client to follow the law, or taking a walk. Not much in between now. And I wonder about the S corp reasonable comp issue in this regard. If TxSrv and his buds are on the warpath and don't believe that anyone can earn a legit profit anymore, that it all has to be taxed for SS, is it reasonable to file the return without all of the income going to salary? Will I win on audit? (And I know you're not quite that strident TS...just playing with you there...) Who knows. I don't like being in this position. Esp. where IRS is taking a position that isn't Congressional law and therefore, largely untested.

TxSrv (talk|edits) said:

14 January 2008
"...show the amounts they were 1099ed for as Officer Compensation on line 12 of 1120? .... There is NOT, however, any deduction on the return for payroll taxes."

Adequate disclosure is whatever IRS says it specifically is, meaning they have to issue at least a Rev. Proc. on given line items. Like they did under 6662 (nee 6661). Else, to me, this proposed disclosure only says to IRS, "We gave you guys enough hint there's a potential issue here."

I really don't see IRS ever proposing a prepare penalty issue here, if the FICA and income tax effects are a wash -- not net tax deficiency. However, returns should be done properly on the basics, namely closely-held corp officer/shareholders can't work independently of their own corp. Disclosure can't ameliorate that under any standard, IMO.

Aunt Emmy (talk|edits) said:

14 January 2008
Do them Common paymaster rules work here?

JAD (talk|edits) said:

14 January 2008
D&T, (and others) check out Notice 2008-13 re the new preparer penalties. See Examples 10 and 11 on page 17. Example 11 may have been what was behind the discussion in the Kiplinger Report.

Rgtaxservice (talk|edits) said:

14 January 2008
I had a similiar issue I had to address with a client that I fired.

This client was a Sole Prop (Sch C) and he had employees. He paid his employees but did not withhold or pay any payroll taxes. He did not file any payroll forms. The wages were clearly reported on the Sch C. The client was fully informed for the payroll requirements regarding withholding and payroll reporting. What position does that put the preparer in? Wages are fully disclosed, there are no payroll taxes reported on the Sch C. What disclosure is required, if any? The Sch C clearly shows what is going on.

JR - You are right...we're in a position of being cops.

RayR (talk|edits) said:

14 January 2008
I don't know the answer here but I do know the MLTN tax preparer penalties put us in a position that we should not be in. How can we do the best job for our client when the IRS is forcing us not to take only a perfectly safe position?

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

January 14, 2008
I need to read that ref that JAD provided above, but my understanding is that we're under the better than a coin toss rule. What does that mean? Against the IRS on a reasonable comp issue, to stick with that topic, is there ANY chance of winning outside of a court case given the attitudes publically expressed of late? Maybe. Given an overly aggressive position taken by the service on audit, we have no chance of prevailing. Until/unless we go to court. So what standard am I held to? That I could ultimately win? Or that I can't win on audit?

Rgtaxservice (talk|edits) said:

14 January 2008
To me it's not so much a matter of us having to take perfectly safe position, but one of how far we need to go to substaniate our client's information. If I phone my client and ask what he paid for medical expenses or his property taxes...I take his word for it. My job is not to maintain a client's recordkeeping and verify his every expense.

It's not my place to audit a client. Mine is to inform the client of his requirements and point out any defiencies he may have.

JAD (talk|edits) said:

14 January 2008
I think these rules are horrible and it's further evidence of Congress' incompetence that they are now upon us, and I am very uncomfortable with the conflict of interest now forced upon us - our client's best interest vs protecting ourselves. That said, the Notice is not all bad news. The IRS states that they intend to be reasonable, and in the 2 examples I mentioned, the tax preparers attempt to do the right thing without making disclosure and are not penalized. CSCPA is doing another webcast on 2/7, and I have signed up. You may want to check it out - I have found most of their webcasts to be very good.

http://www.educationfoundation.org/webcast/webcast_display.asp?Par_EventId=87050802&Par_EventYr=07Link title

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

14 January 2008
Hey gang, the Taxpayer Advocate has spoken also: Discussion: TP Advocates Report

CrowJD (talk|edits) said:

14 January 2008
I think we have to have more than a reasonable basis now don't we? More likely than not is past the comment period, and is the rule? If the client prepares their own return, they have a lesser standard (sustainable position, something like that), but as for preparers, isn't the only standard now "more likely than not."? NPA magazine described it all in a past news squib, but it's dancing around in my head right now.

Msmith7305 (talk|edits) said:

14 January 2008
Thanks for all replies-

To get back on point:

1. Is there an "underpayment" here for any penalty to even be assessed? The compensation has been paid and turning it into wages will only decrease the corporate tax.

2. The shareholders have paid all income and self-employment taxes on those payments (with the exception of uncollected FUTA). If translated by IRS as wages, the problem to me would be penalties for undeposited taxes.

JR1-

On audit, they would absolutely prevail as to the deduction itself. IT IS officer comp and it was paid. So the amount is not in question and, as I note above, changing it to wages would actually increase the deduction. (Ignore for this sake the second point I made as to penalties!)

They have apparently been warned about the penalty issue before now. This way of treating their comp seems to have come about in the past due to the fact that each shareholder has been taking their own deductions applicable to earning this income on Schedule C. The simplest way to handle to their way of thinking.

Bottom line, I DO agree that they do not have any reasonable basis to treat this as 1099 comp but the deduction itself is proper as to amount.

They seem to be willing to risk the penalties but I do not want to risk any preparer penalty to myself. Any way to satisfy both requirements?

Thanks to all.

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

14 January 2008
By some chance is this corporation in reality a commission-gathering venture which shares certain costs, but pays out the commissions in relationship to the amount each person brought in? When you say that they dump the income on Schedule C and take their expenses there, it does sound like the reason the corporation was formed was for reasons not having to do with turning a corporate profit.

Aunt Emmy (talk|edits) said:

14 January 2008
You is all setch a jumpy bunch about them penalties. Yore asses must be durn cold out there hangin in the wind so much. Pull up yer drawers and git to work. I is jest funnin.

Now why caint you apply the common paymaster rule here? One of you kindly answer yore poor old Aunt Emmy or else shes gonna have the shakin fits all day and have to find old Crow fer some tonic. Dont matter really cause its gittin on time fer tonic anyways.

Msmith7305 (talk|edits) said:

14 January 2008
D&T-

My understanding was that it was set up originally as a separate corp for 2 purposes:

1. There was another shareholder in the Prop/Cas corp who they did not want to have any claim on the life business they were starting. (he was to shortly leave the prop/cas corp)

2. By joining together in a common entity, they (the insurance salesmen/shareholders) would get a better commission rate from the insurance companies. Since they were used to the corporate form, that is what they picked. I want them out of that form, but that's for next year. I have to deal with last year in some way.

So, to be specific, yes it was done as a gathering entity and each shareholder is compensated equal to the commission he personally earned.

TxSrv (talk|edits) said:

14 January 2008
"If translated by IRS as wages, the problem to me would be penalties for undeposited taxes."

That's true, but a nitpicky way to generate a net due to IRS on the audit. Salt in the wound if the S/Hs made timely ES payments. Can we like get credit against penalty for those? :-) This is why field personnel are not prone to raise this issue, and surely not abusive enough for preparer penalty later after audit closed. Of course, the situation is different if the workers are over FICA on other earnings, so the Corp 1/2 of FICA is being evaded. Knowingly doing that, in a situation where it's clear they are employees, is evasion. It's aiding/abetting for the tax advisor to advise doing it that way, defaulting to preparer penalty if case disposed only civilly.

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

14 January 2008
So I guess my thought is would IRS even recognize this as a corporation? You say that other agents occasionally are paid their commission through this 'entity' but that does not change the big picture that the entity serves little purpose except to gain greater commission for these agent.

Before the days of LLCs I'd seen two-three businesses 'combine' resources to set up a health insurance group, but in corporate form. All money going was to pay premium.

My conclusion is that this is a situation where the risk of lack of payroll can be explained, and in reality it would be ridiculous for the sales people to incur the costs of workmen's comp, unemployment insurance and disability if offered in the state.

Msmith7305 (talk|edits) said:

15 January 2008
Another thought has come to me. If the IRS asserted that the comp should be W-2 wages, then the personal returns of the shareholders would have to be adjusted. All of the Sched C expenses would be emp business expenses. That would cost them quite a bit in deductions.

TxSrv (talk|edits) said:

15 January 2008
That's right, but only income tax on 2% of AGI at most. Could also have the effect of making tax prep fee newly deductible in full. :-)

Gone also is the 1/2 of S/E tax deduction, but that washes on an S Corp, and (washing + or -) on a taxable C Corp, when the employer pays the FICA deficiency -- a timing issue for IRS audit consideration.

Theresa d (talk|edits) said:

17 January 2008
I am really confused with these new standards. how far do we have to go with verifying-i do monthly write up work for some corp. They have entertainment expenses for meals I have explained to client the documentation required to substantiate T & E expenses and auto expense. Are we required to insure that taxpayer has adequately documented expenses or is it sufficient to take their word that these are business expenses?

JAD (talk|edits) said:

17 January 2008
Read Notice 2008-13. My understanding is that we can take their word.

To join in on this discussion, you must first log in.
Personal tools

Discussion Forums