Discussion:Loan to shareholder and basis question.

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Discussion Forum Index --> Basic Tax Questions --> Loan to shareholder and basis question.
Discussion Forum Index --> Tax Questions --> Loan to shareholder and basis question.

Www.cpa1.biz (talk|edits) said:

7 June 2009
Almanacers,

I am working with an S corp. They had zero basis in the beginning of 2008. During 2008, they had 20k in credit card expenses that were tied to the company as a loan. This created 20k in basis; however, the S corp gave a 35k loan to the shareholder. I am assuming there is still no basis here for 2008 since the loan of 35k exceeded the 20k loan from shareholder netting to 15k.

When a loan is given to a shareholder, does this lower a shareholder's basis?

Please advise.

Fsteincpa (talk|edits) said:

7 June 2009
http://www.taxalmanac.org/index.php/Discussion:S_Corp_loss_exceeds_basis

Blrgcpa (talk|edits) said:

7 June 2009
YES! The shareholder owes the S corp $15,000. The shareholder loan acct must have a credit balance in order to have basis, otherwise it's negative.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

June 8, 2009
Yep, I agree with Barb, you're upside down at this point. Make sure it's a real note, bearing interest, etc. or else take it to income as required.

Illini (talk|edits) said:

8 June 2009
you were already at zero basis. the loan from corp to shareholder might be taxable if no 2008 net income.

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