Discussion:Capital Gains tax question

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Discussion Forum Index --> Basic Tax Questions --> Capital Gains tax question
Discussion Forum Index --> Tax Questions --> Capital Gains tax question

KCGuy (talk|edits) said:

1 July 2009
One of my client sold a property for $700k which has the basis of $400k..now, he owned the building for 15 years and was reported on schedule E...does this go on sch D for capital gains and how would this get taxed, is it 15% still??

Belle (talk|edits) said:

July 1, 2009
Hits Form 4797 first, and you need to factor in depreciation recapture(ordinary income).

Also consider that a $ 300,000 gain (plus depreciation allowed/allowable) can wreak havoc on other taxable income, and bring into play itemized deductions/exemptions limitations and phase-outs. And who knows if the 15% rate will hold for the entire year.....and if a change will be retroactive.

Solomon (talk|edits) said:

1 July 2009
Depending upon the rest of the return, the unrecaptured 1250 gain is taxed up to a maximum of 25%.

Ksnoopytax (talk|edits) said:

1 July 2009
I agree with Solomon. If I remember correctly 1245 recapture of depreciation would be at ordinary rates but 1250 real property depreciation recapture would be recaptured at a 25% rate. This does go to Form 4797.

KCGuy (talk|edits) said:

2 July 2009
Wow, that looks ugly..It is a apartment building he bought in 1994 and cost basis is $400k with purchase price of $625k...Total depreciation taken is $$225k...I would think the math will be simple, sale price minus the cost basis and gain taxed at the CG rate..Why there is depreciation recapture when it is a real estate investment...I thought recapture was for non real estate property..

MWPXYZ (talk|edits) said:

2 July 2009
Recapture WAS for non real estate property, with limited exceptions, until 1997. Then Section 1 was amended to include in subsection (h), paragraph (1): a subparagraph (D) that creates a maximum 25% rate for ALL Section 1250 depreciation.

A fact I still forget about, 12 years later; until I actually proforma the forms for an anticipated transaction.

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

2 July 2009
If it is any balm, the 15% rate will usually produce a large AMT.

RoyDaleOne (talk|edits) said:

2 July 2009
One of the many reasons to allocate part of the sales price to the land, which is not Section 1250 property.

Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said:

2 July 2009
Why not just say that *all* the gain is in the land? Then all this *confusion* about recapture will evaporate... JUST KIDDING!!

But would the gain on the land be Section 1231 gain or capital gain?

Kevinh5 (talk|edits) said:

2 July 2009
1231

Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said:

2 July 2009
Is that better or worse?

Kevinh5 (talk|edits) said:

2 July 2009
1231 is always better than capital

if gain: tax according to capital gains rules

if loss: tax according to ordinary loss rules


where 'capital' refers to capital gains income

and where 'ordinary' refers to ordinary income

KCGuy (talk|edits) said:

2 July 2009
So what I am hearing is to allocate bigger portion to Land (may be 50%) and gain in land will be 1231 with lower tax rate...the building part will be gain with 1250 depreciation recapture...right?

Kevinh5 (talk|edits) said:

2 July 2009
that may be what you're hearing, but that's not what we're saying (except for Harry, who I know wouldn't take this approach with his own clients unless he's had too many PBRs).


Later edit: although doing so wouldn't change the outcome as long as you allocated at least as much of the sales price to the building as the original basis before depreciation.

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

2 July 2009
But doesn't the buyer have something to say about that? He will not want non-depreciable land unless that value approximates its actual value.

Kevinh5 (talk|edits) said:

2 July 2009
you should allocate the sales price in a reasonable manner to land and building and other assets like appliances

for example, you might use a ratio similar to the way the tax assessor valued the property this year.

e.g. the assessor might value this property at $585,000, of which $140,000 is the value of the land.

Thus, it might be reasonable to use the ratio/formula 140/585 x 700,000 to come up with the amount of the purchase price to allocate to land.

(I wouldn't create an ordinary loss by allocating zero to appliances with any basis remaining, though, unless there was an overall loss)

the appraisal might also have a great breakdown of the value land vs building vs appliances - wouldn't it be reasonable to use that formula?

D&T, unless the contract specifies otherwise, and unless the assets comprise a business, then the buyers and sellers allocations don't need to match.

Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said:

2 July 2009
"the building part will be gain with 1250 depreciation recapture..." wrote somebody.

I'm willing to bet that *none* of the gain on the sale of this building will be "1250 depreciation recapture". You see, nowadays there's this type of gain that is "unrecaptured section 1250 gain" that's taxed just like a Section 1231 gain, but is taxed at a "special" tax rate, the taxpayer's ordinary tax rates (although the gain isn't ordinary income) but never more than 25%.

If that doesn't make sense, you should read about it in the IRS Publications and prepare a few dozen Form 4797s. After a while, the incredibly complicated scheme that Congress has concocted will begin to reveal itself. Pretty much, Section 1250 recapture (ordinary income and subject to acceleration in an installment sale) doesn't exist any more. It's been superseded by something even *more* arcane, the beloved "unrecaptured section 1250 gain" of IRC Section 1(h)(1)(D), that's described in an earlier post to this thread. *Maybe* just following the instructions for Form 4797 will get the preparer who isn't interested in learning all about it to the right result on the tax return. And maybe it won't.

[And, parenthetically, even if the assets do "comprise a business" the buyer and seller are *not* required to use the same allocation of the purchase/selling price among the assets. What is required, however, is that they both complete and file Form 8594.]

RoyDaleOne (talk|edits) said:

2 July 2009
The method of allocation of the selling price should be in the ratio of the different assets as to their respective fair market values.

Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said:

2 July 2009
And if the fair market value of the building is *really* only a fraction of what it was bought for, then...

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

July 2, 2009
And shouldn't someone mention, uhhh...no fair looking backwards! The allocation is what it WAS, not what you wanted it to be. If it was all to the building, so it is.

Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said:

2 July 2009
The allocation of what is what it was? The allocation of the purchase price or the allocation of the gain or the allocation of the selling price? I don't think anybody has put an actual allocation on the table.

I hear you but I'm not following you, JR1.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

July 2, 2009
Back to the original basis allocation. If 10% was allocated to land, then 10% it remains. If nuttin', then nuttin'. You don't get it both ways, max depreciation then by ignoring land, and now booking all the gain to land...I suppose unless something really compelling cries out for a different answer, i.e. a tear down location where the land is all that has value now.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

July 2, 2009
Tho' now, wondering about my answer. If there's a legit appraisal of the land/building split, perhaps that should be used.....I love doubt. (no, not really)

Kevinh5 (talk|edits) said:

2 July 2009
our California practitioners will argue that land could have gone up from 10% of the original purchase price to 80% of the value at sale some years later. (and I politely disagree that 'what was limits what is'. If the original preparer allocated nothing to land and depreciated everything, why would I want to make an error on the return that I am preparing now? Two wrongs don't make a right. But three lefts do.

KCGuy (talk|edits) said:

2 July 2009
On the asset ledger the land cost was $40k of the purchase price, which was not depreciated....so, I can use that ratio and allocate land portion and other goes to building and appliances....then gain on Appliances after recapture and building basic 1250 asset...

Kevinh5 (talk|edits) said:

2 July 2009
I would have no problem signing that return as you descibe, KCGuy. Sounds good.

RoyDaleOne (talk|edits) said:

3 July 2009
KCGuy, that is not the rule, however, as a practical matter I do the same, unless there is available justification to use a different ratio.

All of the assets, fall within the allocation class, Class VI for our purposes if I recall correctly, the assets with that Class, i. e. Class VI, are to have that portion of the purchase price assigned, or, all of the purchase price, allocated by the relative fair market values within that class.

This ratio of allocation may have changed since the allocation was made for the original purchase.

Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said:

4 July 2009
I don't see how the selling price in today's sale should be allocated between land and building in *any* manner other than relative fair market value *today*. Looking at what value the land and building had when they were bought umpteen years ago is way low in my pecking order of criteria for determining how to split up the selling price today.

If, for example, the buildings today are unoccupied, unmaintained, vandalized, fire-gutted garden apartments and the first thing any purchaser would do is to raze them [okay, maybe he should evict the squatters, first], then they - the buildings - represent more of a liability than an asset, and the entire selling price should be - must be - ascribed to the land. And the "unrecaptured section 1250 gain" just disappeared.

I don't see any info from the OP about the current relative value of the land and buildings. What's more, I must politely insist that my "worthless building" scenario is no less plausible than any other *factual* scenario. Until you look, you won't see. That's why we accountants wear those green eye-shades, isn't it...? Drive by the property and see what's there! You don't even have to tell your client you peeked....

Happy Fourth!! God Bless America!!

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

July 4, 2009
I've come around to Harry's thinking here. In my mind, it's not right to, in the beginning, say the land had no value, depreciate the building only, and now at time of sale, to turn around and claim that the building has no value, and therefore no deprec. recap so that you can get cap gains treatment. But, it is what it is if you can support it. Appraisal would be handy to have.

Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said:

5 July 2009
"I've come around to Harry's thinking here."

Well that sure took a while! How about *me* returning the compliment by saying that your "it is what it is if you can support it" is a simply awesome piece of tax planning/after-planning insight. It deserves to be engraved on that thing - what's the word? - over the entrance to my office!!

KCGuy (talk|edits) said:

8 July 2009
It is fully occupied apartment building and very well maintained. I will get the appraisal and look through the breakdown. Thanks for the comments..

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