Discussion:C Corp officer compensation
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Discussion Forum Index --> Tax Questions --> C Corp officer compensation
| 11 October 2007 | |
| I have searched through and read previous threads and still am not sure the course to take on the individual return.
Husband & wife are sole shareholders and have filed their own 1120 for the past 4 years. They always show officer compensation but have never issued W-2's or 1099 div nor reported any of this on their 1040. They want to take the wait and see approach and not amend the past returns but will change their ways in the future. For this year I have an 1120 with about 34K in officer compensation & I'm asking for some advice on what I should do with this on their 1040. | |
| 11 October 2007 | |
| I take it by this year you mean 2006. They probably never paid any 941s or state employment taxes, so I would report $34K on Schedule C. That's not the correct way to do it, but at least there would be very little underpayment due to the SE tax.
Needless to say, you should set them up on payroll taxes for 2007. I would also give them a letter recommending they amend all open years, and keep a copy for your records. | |
| 11 October 2007 | |
| You can either amend the 1120 without officer compensation or amend the 1040s with W2 and both will end up having the tax payer pay payroll taxes, interest, and late payment penalties. Either way, more money will have to go out of the pocket... Either the C Corp or the Officers.
For this year, you should really have the CCORP issue W2s and pay for their mistakes =) | |
| 11 October 2007 | |
| Taxref,
How do you report Officer Compensation on Schedule C? The owners can be contractors? | |
| 11 October 2007 | |
| That's wrong u guys are cheating the service =(. Hiding the mistakes of your clients! | |
| 11 October 2007 | |
| I tend to agree with Pegoo. Is it really worth the risk to help a client who has choosen to not follow the rules. I would ask myself if I really need a client like this. | |
| October 11, 2007 | |
| Excuse me? We cannot force a client to amend prior returns that we did not do. We can merely advise them to do so and leave it at that. Assuming that they're willing to change their ways, then we can have a fine relationship. | |
| 11 October 2007 | |
| Pegoo, you are right that they are not contractors and they are actually employees. That is why I said reporting it on Schedule C is not technically correct.
However, by reporting it on Schedule C they will at least pay the taxes they owe. That is because the $34K will be picked up as income and they will pay incomee tax on it (in past years they took a deduction on the 1120 but never reported it on their 1040...a big understatment of income). The $34K will also go to Schedule SE, so they will also pay SE tax on it. That will make up for the fact they failed to pay Fica taxes on the $34K. The net result is that, even if the return is audited by the IRS and the Schedule C switched to salary, there would be almost no change in tax. Although its all classified wrong by using Schedule C, they will have paid almost exactly what they would owe if they classified it as salaries. To me, the key to this client is the fact that they are going to get straight for 2007. Based on the time frames involved (considering no quarterly or annual PR tax returns were done for 2006)the Schedule C approach is probably the most expeditious way to complete the return and still not have an underpayment. Of course, if they still wanted to underreport their income I would drop them. | |
| 11 October 2007 | |
| You can throw them one bone: If their compensation does not get properly reported, they will not get social security credit. That will impact them for the rest of their lives. | |
Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said: | 11 October 2007 |
| I realize this is a C Corp, but examine what the Tax Court did in the case referred to at Discussion: S Corps/SE Taxes & Tax Preparers | |
| 11 October 2007 | |
| My advice would be to amend the 1120 and set up a PR service now. I understand taxref and JR1's approach. In order for me to take that approach I would have to tell my client I was taking a technically incorrect position on their return to hedge against a back PR Tax liability they had created. I don't want to say that to most new/newer clients. It seems like I would be setting a precedent of ends justifying the means and that I can be expected to walk behind them and clean up their crap, even in technically incorrect ways.
Add in the possibility that they have years of taking deductions on 1120 and not showing the income on 1040, and yeah, I'll pass on jumping into bed with them. (@OP: If you take the Sched C approach note that they will have first year filings in Port/Mutl Co if they have exposure there.) | |
| 11 October 2007 | |
| If Sch C, exactly how are we cheating the IRS? The FICA is pretty much a wash, depending up 1040 and 1120 relative tax brackets. There may be FUTA due, but rather small.
Anyway, are these people aware that have signed criminally false 1040s? The slam-dunk evidence is their preparation of the 1120s, and statements made to the orig poster as cooperating witness. Beyond that, nuthin' to worry about. In light of this, I would insist 941's be filed or amended if filed. Removing comp from 1120 won't work, especially if treatment as distributions is beneficial. T/p's are bound by their transactions. For starters, what's it say for MEMO on the checks and/or in the checkbook? Plus, as new preparer, if we fix it other than the way the Code says, and saves money, we're aiding/abetting! The client may end up the cooperating witness. :-) | |
| October 11, 2007 | |
| "...They always show officer compensation but have never issued W-2's or 1099 div nor reported any of this on their 1040..." Now that's fraud clear as day. I'd be interested to know their explanation for not reporting income on their 1040. If the explanation is anything other than "oops we made a mistake, how do we fix it?" you've got to wonder if they're not just scamming the IRS. Everyone above has addressed how to handle the 1040 situation for the latest year, and, I agree with the treatment .... put it to schedule C.
If they balk, walk. You don't need the money that bad. | |
| 11 October 2007 | |
| Do it correctly. Issue W-2s for 2006 and put all the income into the 4th quarter. They will get penalties, but will learn. Amend the 1120 if need be and do the 1040 correctly. Charge accordingly to make the corrections and do thing the right way the first time.
Sched c is not right. | |
| October 12, 2007 | |
| How do you fix retained earnings from prior year bogus writeoffs? | |
Kenneth135 (talk|edits) said: | 12 October 2007 |
| BE Gooding- I would leave RE and amend the 1040's.
I have a similar situation. I was just hired by a client to do his C corp for 2006. He ended up with a profit of 800,000 but took the 800,000 out as a sharelholder loan. He did the same thing in the prior year and paid a hugh tax thru the c corp in 2005 and nothing on his 1040 since it was a loan. And now for 2007, he elected S corp status. Which option do I choose for doing the 2006 C corp tax return? Do I leave the 800,000 as a shareholder loan? Do I reclassify this loan as you discussed above to officers salaries and have him report this on Sch C? Do I reclassify as officers salaries and redo his W-2 form and show the full 800,000? Do I leave the 800,000 as a loan and now that his is an S corp, reclassify as distributions of prior c corp earnings? Client is open to doing whatever I think is the best way to save taxes but stay good with the IRS. | |
Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said: | 12 October 2007 |
| I have seen IRS auditors suggest taxing the loan balance as debt forgiveness, saying that the company will never collect it. This is arguable, and in the one case where it happened to my client, they did give up on this attack, but by you suggesting it, you also could say that if he repays the loan now, you will not do this and will leave well enough alone.
Debt forgiveness would be ordinary income, not dividend taxed at 15%. By repaying it, he could take the money out in future years as dividends from a former C Corp at 15%. | |
| October 12, 2007 | |
| Ken135: in your situation, I'd reclass the 2006 payments to commission expense and take on SH's sch c. I'd also convert the 2005 loans plus the accrued interest to commission expense in 2006 and report on SH's 2006 return as sch c. Then do an NOL carryback to recoup the huge corporate taxes paid in 2005. | |
Kenneth135 (talk|edits) said: | 13 October 2007 |
| Most people think that the right way is to amend the 941 and W-2 instead of showing the amount on Sch C. Of course the client would save on penalties and interest big time. Remember, the amount is 800,000 and since that is a big amount to show on the corporate return for subcontractors, does anyone think I should do a 1099 form? | |
| 14 October 2007 | |
| reclassifying 800k to commission? in what universe would that be correct? | |
Kenneth135 (talk|edits) said: | 23 October 2007 |
| Remember, the 2006 C corp return has not yet been completed nor has the individual form 1040. It sounds like theses are the real choices:
1) to reclassify the 800,000 shareholder loan, which was mostly taken out of 2006 earnings, as either a qualifying dividend to shareholder taxed at 15% on Form 1040 and no deduction on C corp 2) to reclassify it as salary-amend the payroll returns. If I do that then of course the 800,000 would be deductible by the C corp and income on the 1040 but then there are payroll tax penalties from Dec 2006 to Oct 2007. 3)Leave as loan and the reclassify to salary in 2007 Any words or wisdom from you guru's? | |


