Discussion:Basic simple trust question

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Discussion Forum Index --> Basic Tax Questions --> Basic simple trust question
Discussion Forum Index --> Tax Questions --> Basic simple trust question

Tberti (talk|edits) said:

4 October 2008
if a simple trust has capital gain income because a company whose stock was owned was bought by another entity in a cash tender offer - can this income be passed through to the k1 of the beneficiary? or is this considered sale of corpus and must then stay as a taxable event for the trust?

it was a forced sale as a tender offer so i was not sure if that mattered?

Uncle Sam (talk|edits) said:

4 October 2008
Unfortunately - you can't get a simple answer to a simple question - because - it depends upon the provisions of the trust, and when the trust was created.

The tax law originally was the capital gains of a trust were taxed to the trust (assuming a simple trust). Then it was changed - about 8 years ago +/- where the beneficiary was taxed on the capital gain income and considered part of the DNI.

Tberti (talk|edits) said:

4 October 2008
Thanks

I think trust was formed in 1992 and the person named in the trust died in 2002. It is a simple residuary trust if that helps?

and So i need to see a copy of all legal documents for formation of these trusts-right?

What is the basis date for stocks sold? 1992? 2002? or when assets originally purchased? thanks again.

Riley2 (talk|edits) said:

4 October 2008
I think Uncle Sam is pulling your leg.

Tberti (talk|edits) said:

4 October 2008
Riley2, I see you post here often. Can you help me here?

thanks

Riley2 (talk|edits) said:

5 October 2008
First, read the trust instrument. Then, read Reg §1.643(a)-3(b)[reproduced below].


(b) Capital gains included in distributable net income. Gains from the sale or exchange of capital assets are included in distributable net income to the extent they are, pursuant to the terms of the governing instrument and applicable local law, or pursuant to a reasonable and impartial exercise of discretion by the fiduciary (in accordance with a power granted to the fiduciary by applicable local law or by the governing instrument if not prohibited by applicable local law)—

(1) Allocated to income (but if income under the state statute is defined as, or consists of, a unitrust amount, a discretionary power to allocate gains to income must also be exercised consistently and the amount so allocated may not be greater than the excess of the unitrust amount over the amount of distributable net income determined without regard to this subparagraph §1.643(a)-3(b));

(2) Allocated to corpus but treated consistently by the fiduciary on the trust's books, records, and tax returns as part of a distribution to a beneficiary; or

(3) Allocated to corpus but actually distributed to the beneficiary or utilized by the fiduciary in determining the amount that is distributed or required to be distributed to a beneficiary.

Tberti (talk|edits) said:

5 October 2008
I have had a hard time in trying to find this document

assuming it was a boilerplate doc for estate planning-for husband and spouse to utilize both estate exemptions-formed when wills were made in 1992-a simple residuary trust

i would like the capital gain to pass through on the k1 to the surviving husband instead of the trust owing taxes-is this possible?

Tberti (talk|edits) said:

5 October 2008
Does anyone have any input here? Seems to be such a smart group of CPA's on this site - just trying to get some guidance?

thanks

Tberti (talk|edits) said:

5 October 2008
Can anyone help me understand the regs in laymans terms?

sorry to be a pest here - just confused as to what this all means? thanks

Riley2 (talk|edits) said:

5 October 2008
This sounds like a bypass trust. A bypass trust would ordinarily not pass out capital gains to a benefciary.

Blrgcpa (talk|edits) said:

6 October 2008
It may have been a credit shelter trust.

Anyway a simple trust gives the bene the income, not the corpus.

If there is a gap gain/loss of any asset the trust owns, that is corpus, not income.

The simple trust pays tax on the cap gain. It does not go to the bene.

I suggest that you read the trust document and if you have any questions, speak to the elder law attorney who wrote it.

Dennis (talk|edits) said:

6 October 2008
Note the recurrence of the phrase "applicable local law." This is your state's version of the Uniform Principal and Income Act which will enumerate what you can or cannot do absent specific document language.

Riley2 (talk|edits) said:

6 October 2008
Birgcpa, most bypass trusts have a 5 and 5 power -- even if it is a simple trust. Thus, in the years that the 5 and 5 power is excercised, there will be a distribution of corpus.

Also, the whole point of Reg §1.643(a)-3(b) is that a simple or complex trust may distribute capital gains if any of the 3 conditions are satisfied.

Tberti (talk|edits) said:

6 October 2008
Thanks for all the comments gang.

Can you explain what the 5 and 5 power means?

FloridaCPA (talk|edits) said:

10 October 2008
I have a similar situation with a simple trust that requires the income be passed to bene. The atty advised to pass out the capital gain portion of the proceeds to the income bene but keep the principal part for the trust. In filling out the forms, ProSers keeps assessing alt min tax at the trust level. I can't figure out how to get out of the alt min tax on the transaction. There is no alt min tax exposure on this...right?

Thanks

Kevinh5 (talk|edits) said:

10 October 2008
FloridaCPA, are you sure it is AltMin and not just the tax on the capital gains at the trust level?

FloridaCPA (talk|edits) said:

10 October 2008
No, its definitely Alt Min Tax on the Trust return. The tax on the Cap Gains gets eliminated using the DNI schedule. I can over ride the ProSers but I always get a sick feeling when I do this. There should be no Alt Min exposure on the capital gains if it gets passed out...right?

I've gone through the Schedule I several times and can't figure out how to get the capital gains out of the Alt Min income.

Thanks for responding

Tberti (talk|edits) said:

10 October 2008
Hi all

This is a credit shelter trust-that will exist until the spouse /beneficiary passes away - can someone answer this for me?

Can capital gains in this type of trust pass through on a k1 to spouse/beneficiary?

Tberti (talk|edits) said:

11 October 2008
FLORIDA CPA

I have a credit shelter trust of a previous fla resident

it had cgain income

so you passed the cgain income on to the bene on the k1?

Riley2 (talk|edits) said:

11 October 2008
Unless the trust instrument provides for this, the answer is generally no.

Tberti (talk|edits) said:

11 October 2008
Riley2 (talk

Tberti (talk|edits) said:

11 October 2008
riley 2 can you explain what 5 and 5 means?

your post above??

Dennis (talk|edits) said:

11 October 2008
The bypass trust usually provides that the surviving spouse is to receive all the income from the trust for life, with the property then passing to the children at the surviving spouse's death. The surviving spouse usually has very liberal rights in the bypass trust. In addition to all the income, he or she can have:

• distributions of principal for purposes of health, education, support and maintenance

• a limited power of appointment over the trust principal, which means the spouse can appoint the principal to anyone except herself, her estate, her creditors or the creditors of her estate

• an annual right to withdraw the greater of $5,000 or 5% of the trust principal.

Tberti (talk|edits) said:

11 October 2008
i am trying to get a way to fit the scenario that the capital gains flow through on the k1 to the surviving spouse instead of being a taxable event for the trust

so if surviving spouse was in his 90's and ill - i understand that he can tap into the principal for a distribution-but if he does this - and sells assets in the trust-who pays the tax?

Tberti (talk|edits) said:

11 October 2008
do i understand these credit shelter/bypass trusts correctly:

(except for my capital gain question?)

1st spouse dies in 2002 assets are transferred to fund credit shelter/bypass trust in 2002 basis of assets in trust are fmv in 2002

interest/dividend income of trust assets each yr flows to beneficiary-(spouse) for spouse to pay taxes on as it comes through on k1 from trust

capital gains from trust assets have basis valuation date of 2002 and the gains are sometimes taxed to the trust and sometimes taxed to beneficiary via k1??

then if second spouse dies in 2008 - and all assets go to their only child.

the only child has 2 tax basis to track trust assets basis = fmv in 2002 second spouse-his father's-assets have basis in 2008

Tberti (talk|edits) said:

11 October 2008
last sentence i wrote was confusing-replaced below-

the only child has 2 tax basis to track 1. trust assets basis=fmv in 2002 2. the second to die-only childs dad-remaining assets have basis = fmv in 2008

Riley2 (talk|edits) said:

11 October 2008
Basis in bypass trust assets remains at fair market value in 2002. Basis in surviving spouse's property be stepped up to value at date of his death.

Since you can't seem to get your hands on the trust instrument, you will never be able to build a "scenario" where the trust capital gains will flow through to the surviving spouse.

Tberti (talk|edits) said:

11 October 2008
Thanks Riley2!

FloridaCPA (talk|edits) said:

13 October 2008
I'm not sure I followed all of that. The trust I have is a marital trust, when the survg spouse dies the corpus goes to a short list of 501(c)3's. The instrument states that the trustee shall pay the income from the Marital Trust to the surviving spouse for life. It does not define "income". Why wouldn't "income" include the (very large) capital gain (measured by the difference btwn the stepped up value & the sales price)? The taxpayer's financial advisor's attorney (in a conference call) said the capital gains & tax would pass out to her. Is that not correct?

Kevinh5 (talk|edits) said:

13 October 2008
that's what we've politely been trying to say all along. We believe a mistake is being made.

FloridaCPA (talk|edits) said:

13 October 2008
Hummm...can you point me to some authoritative literature I can look at this more closely. I haven't been able to find anything on point.

Kevinh5 (talk|edits) said:

13 October 2008
I'd start with the instructions for DNI.

Riley2 (talk|edits) said:

13 October 2008
Florida has its own version of the UPIA. Capital gains are normally corpus, and not income.

FloridaCPA (talk|edits) said:

19 November 2008
The governing document (trust) only calls for the income of the Trust to be distributed to the income beneficiary (widow/trustee). It does not define income. The Trust has nonmarketable securities and for the past 2 yrs (since inception) hasn't enuf int/divs to cover its administrative exps. Fiduciary/income beneficiary has had to put $$ in to cover trust exps. 2007 Trust had the opportunity to sell some of its nonmarketable sects and realized a capital gain. The Trust document is silent regarding any powers to allocate btwn pincipal or income.

However, under the Florida UP&IA section 738.706 the fiduciary has powers to make adjustmts btwn princ & inc to offset shifting of economic interest or tax benes btwn income bene (widow) & remainder bene's (charitable Orgs) which arise from elections & decisions the fid makes regarding tax matters.

Sec 738.706 looks like sufficient guidance to enable allocating the capital gain income (and its character) to the income bene/fiduciary. The balance of the proceeds (the original basis in the shares) stayed in the trust and has now been reinvested in what will hopefully be productive assets (if the stock market will turn around).

Am I on shaky ground re sec. 738.706? If we take this position, would it still be a simple trust (I think so).

CarlLaFong (talk|edits) said:

19 November 2008
This provision in the UPIA is designed to compensate income beneficiaries who would otherwise be deprived of income as a result in the trustee's decision to invest in growth investments as opposed to income producing investments. Is that what happened here?

Blrgcpa (talk|edits) said:

20 November 2008
A credit shelter trust has the fmv of the deceased, not the bene. It by passes the bene's estate and goes to the remainderman, which is probably the children.
A capital gain is part of the corpus and does not get distributed. It stays in the trust.

CarlLaFong (talk|edits) said:

20 November 2008
Not really. As Florida CPA indicated, the trustee has the discretion under Florida Statute 738.706 to distribute capital gains under certain circumstances.

FloridaCPA (talk|edits) said:

20 November 2008
It was not a Credit Shelter Trust. There are no children, just widow who is also co-trustee & income beneficiary. The remainder goes to charitable orgs. The assets that funded the trust were/are nonproducing non-marketable securities that the private company offered to buy back some of the stock. The Trust sold some of the non-marketable sectys and reinvested in what will hopefully be productive securities. Meanwhile, since inception (2005),and up until 2007, the int/divs have have not been sufficient to cover admin exps. The widow/trustee/income bene, has not only been unable to draw any trustee fees fees but has had to put $$ in to cover excess admin exps. So, Carl, yes, that appears to be the situation. The plan is to draw out the capital gain portion of the proceeds as DNI and have the income bene/widow/trustee pay the income taxes on it.

I was planning on having both co-trustees sign a statement authorizing the capital gain distribution as a discretionary distribution of capital gain income for the "comfort/maintenance" of the widow for admin housekeeping - but it is not necessary.

Given the flexibility of the Fla UP&IA I think she can characterize it as DNI and don't plan on it being an invasion of principal.

Dennis (talk|edits) said:

20 November 2008
I will not offer an interpretation of the Florida Law. New York law has a similar adjustment provision, however, and the result is that absent specific document language the gain must be taxed at the trust level and the trustee has the discretionary power to charge the income beneficiary in order to effectively reimburse the residual beneficiary for the taxes paid.

CarlLaFong (talk|edits) said:

21 November 2008
After reading the full text of 738.076, I agree that this is not the section you should be looking at. Instead, take a look at 738.104.

FloridaCPA (talk|edits) said:

21 November 2008
If I read the text of .076 it still looks okay as long as under 3(f) the trustee is not the income beneficiary. In which case, having both co-trustees (one of the trustees is income beneficiary the other is a sibling) authorize the distribution should be okay.

?no?

FloridaCPA (talk|edits) said:

21 November 2008
Rather, make that after re-reading the text of .104 not .076

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