Discussion:1031 question

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Discussion Forum Index --> Advanced Tax Questions --> 1031 question
Discussion Forum Index --> Tax Questions --> 1031 question

Eric1979 (talk|edits) said:

19 January 2009
I have a client that wants to exchange a piece of property for a 40% interest in another property. The property is similar, but im not sure if you could do a 1031 if you are giving up 100% of property for a portion of another property.

Also, they are related parties, dont think that would matter.

Any thoughts?

Kevinh5 (talk|edits) said:

19 January 2009
Do a search on "TIC" or "Tenants In Common" in the yellow box

<------------right there

CrowCPA (talk|edits) said:

19 January 2009
The first part of your question presents no problem - 100% ownership is not required.

I have not researched the related parties issue, but I would do so if I were in your shoes.

Eric1979 (talk|edits) said:

19 January 2009
Thanks, I researched the related parties issue and the main thing I found was the holding period after the exchange needs to be 2 years.

Blrgcpa (talk|edits) said:

19 January 2009
You need a q.i. who would be able to answer the details of the question.

Eric1979 (talk|edits) said:

19 January 2009
Blrgcpa,

I dont think they planned on using a Q.I. They were going to do the exchange directly between the 2 parties.

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